a 10 year old who has terminal brain cancer asks the nurse what will happen to my body when i die how should the nurse respond
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HESI CAT Exam Quizlet

1. A 10-year-old who has terminal brain cancer asks the nurse, 'What will happen to my body when I die?' How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it provides a truthful yet sensitive response to the child's question. Saying that the body will stop functioning and that there will be no more pain helps the child understand what to expect without unnecessary details or causing distress. Choice A is too technical and may not be suitable for a child. Choice B might give the impression of a peaceful passing, which may not always be the case. Choice D introduces the concept of feeling tired, which might not be accurate or helpful in this context.

2. The nurse is managing the care of a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which interventions should the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Weighing the client and monitoring food and liquid intake are appropriate tasks to delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) when managing a client with Cushing's syndrome. These tasks provide essential information for evaluating the client's condition and response to treatment. Evaluating for sleep disturbances and reporting client complaints of pain or discomfort require a higher level of assessment and interpretation, which should be performed by licensed healthcare providers. Therefore, options A and C are tasks that involve assessment and interpretation beyond the scope of practice for UAP.

3. During an admission assessment on an HIV positive client diagnosed with Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP), which symptoms should the nurse carefully observe the client for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Altered mental status and tachypnea. These symptoms are indicative of PCP and severe HIV progression. Weight loss exceeding 10 percent of baseline body weight (choice A) may be seen in HIV/AIDS but is not specific to PCP. Creamy white patches in the oral cavity (choice C) are characteristic of oral thrush, which is more commonly associated with Candida infections in HIV patients. Normal ABGs with wet lung sounds in all lung fields (choice D) would not be expected with PCP, as it typically presents with hypoxemia and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest imaging.

4. Which type of Leukocyte is involved with allergic responses and the destruction of parasitic worms?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Eosinophils are the correct answer. Eosinophils are specialized white blood cells that play a crucial role in allergic responses and combating parasitic infections. They release substances to destroy parasites and modulate allergic reactions. Neutrophils (Choice A) are mainly involved in fighting bacterial infections. Lymphocytes (Choice B) play a key role in the immune response, including antibody production, but are not primarily responsible for combating parasites or allergic responses. Monocytes (Choice D) are involved in immune defense, differentiating into macrophages or dendritic cells, but they are not mainly associated with allergic responses or parasitic worm destruction.

5. When conducting diet teaching for a client who is on a postoperative full liquid diet, which foods should the nurse encourage the client to eat?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer should be provided as choice E: Vanilla frozen yogurt. For a postoperative full liquid diet, the nurse should encourage the client to eat foods that are fully liquid and easy to digest. Vanilla frozen yogurt is a suitable choice as it provides calories and nutrients while being in a liquid form. Creamy peanut butter, vegetable juice, and canned fruit cocktail are not appropriate for a full liquid diet as they are not fully liquid and may not be easy to digest. Creamy peanut butter is solid, vegetable juice is not fully liquid, and canned fruit cocktail contains solid pieces.

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