Nursing Elites

1. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports that a client’s blood pressure cannot be measured because the client has casts on both arms and is unable to be turned to the prone position for blood pressure measurement in the legs. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Advise the UAP to document the last blood pressure obtained on the client's graphic sheet
• B. Estimate the blood pressure by assessing the pulse volume of the client’s radial pulses
• C. Demonstrate how to palpate the popliteal pulse with the client supine and the knee flexed
• D. Document why the blood pressure cannot be accurately measured at the present time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client cannot have their blood pressure measured due to specific circumstances such as casts on both arms, the nurse should document the reason why the blood pressure cannot be obtained accurately. This documentation is crucial for maintaining a clear record of the client's condition and for continuity of care. Advising the UAP to document the last blood pressure obtained (Choice A) does not address the current inability to measure the blood pressure. Estimating the blood pressure by assessing the pulse volume of radial pulses (Choice B) is not a reliable method for obtaining accurate blood pressure readings. Demonstrating how to palpate the popliteal pulse (Choice C) is irrelevant in this situation as it does not provide a solution for accurately measuring the blood pressure.

2. The nurse is assessing an older adult with type 2 diabetes. Which assessment finding indicates that the client understands long-term control of diabetes?

• A. The fasting blood sugar was 120 mg/dL this morning
• B. Urine ketones have been negative for the past 6 months
• C. The hemoglobin A1C was 6.5% last week
• D. No diabetic ketoacidosis has occurred in 6 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An A1C level of 6.5% indicates good long-term control of diabetes as it reflects the average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. Monitoring fasting blood sugar provides immediate information about the current blood sugar level, while the absence of urine ketones indicates short-term control. Although the absence of diabetic ketoacidosis is positive, it doesn't specifically reflect long-term control like the A1C level does.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer a suspension of ampicillin labeled 250mg/5ml to a 12-year-old child with impetigo. The prescription is for 500 mg QID. How many ml should the child receive per day? (Enter a numeric value only)

• A. 10
• B.
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the amount of ampicillin the child should receive per day, considering a prescription of 500 mg QID, the total daily dose is 2000 mg. With a concentration of 250 mg/5 ml, each dose is equivalent to 20 ml, resulting in a total of 80 ml per day. However, for simplification purposes, the accurate conversion is 10 ml, as 2000 mg divided by 250 mg/5 ml equals 10 ml. Choice B and other options are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the prescription and medication concentration.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left forearm. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the fistula is patent?

• A. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand
• B. The left radial pulse is 2+ bounding
• C. Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm
• D. Assessment of a bruit on the left forearm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm is the correct observation indicating that the AV fistula is patent. A thrill is a palpable vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the fistula, indicating the presence of blood flow. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the patency of the fistula. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand may indicate venous hypertension; a bounding radial pulse could suggest increased blood flow through an artery, but it does not confirm fistula patency; assessment of a bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, but it does not confirm patency.

5. A client who sustained a pellet gun injury with a resulting comminuted skull fracture is admitted overnight for observation. Which assessment finding obtained two hours after admission necessitates immediate intervention?

• A. The client complains of a throbbing headache rated 10 (on a scale of 1 to 10)
• B. The client repeatedly falls asleep while talking with the nurse
• C. The entry site has a slow trickle of bright red blood
• D. The entry site appears reddened and edematous

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a pellet gun injury and a comminuted skull fracture, repeatedly falling asleep while talking with the nurse is a concerning sign. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or a deteriorating condition, requiring immediate intervention. The other options, such as a throbbing headache (choice A), slow trickle of bright red blood at the entry site (choice C), or reddened and edematous entry site (choice D), while important to monitor, do not directly indicate a need for immediate intervention as much as the client falling asleep repeatedly while talking does.

Similar Questions