a female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days but now is defecating frequent small amount of liquid stool which action should th
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1. A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amounts of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction. Small, frequent liquid stools following constipation may indicate a fecal impaction. This intervention is crucial to assess and address a potential impaction promptly. Choices B, increasing fluid intake, and C, providing a high-fiber diet, may help with bowel regularity in general cases, but they don't directly address the urgent concern of a possible impaction. Choice D, administering a stool softener, is not appropriate as the first action when a fecal impaction is suspected; it could worsen the condition by causing further liquid stool output without addressing the impaction.

2. A newly hired unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is assigned to a home healthcare team along with two experienced UAPs. Which intervention should the home health nurse implement to ensure adequate care for all clients?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating the newly hired UAP’s competency by observing them deliver care is the most effective intervention to ensure they can provide safe and effective care. This approach directly assesses the UAP's actual performance and allows for immediate feedback. Option A, asking the most experienced UAP to partner with the newly hired one, may not guarantee that the new UAP is competent. Option C, reviewing the UAP’s skills checklist and experience with the hiring person, does not provide a direct assessment of the UAP's current abilities. Option D, assigning the new UAP to less complex cases, does not address the need to evaluate their competency directly.

3. The nurse assesses a 5-year-old child who has been experiencing frequent headaches and vomiting. The nurse notices that the child is lethargic and has a positive Brudzinski sign. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. The presence of lethargy and a positive Brudzinski sign in a child experiencing frequent headaches and vomiting may indicate a serious condition like meningitis. Prompt notification of the healthcare provider is crucial for timely evaluation and initiation of appropriate treatment. Choice A is incorrect because while a neurological examination may be necessary, it is not the priority when a potentially serious condition like meningitis is suspected. Choice B is incorrect as measuring the child's head circumference is not the most immediate action to take in this situation. Choice C is also incorrect as checking the child's blood glucose level, although important in some cases, is not the priority when a child presents with symptoms suggestive of meningitis.

4. A male client is returned to the surgical unit following a left nephrectomy and is medicated with morphine. His dressing has a small amount of bloody drainage, and a Jackson-Pratt bulb surgical drainage device is in place. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care following a left nephrectomy with a Jackson-Pratt bulb in place is to record drainage from the drain. Monitoring the drainage is crucial as it helps assess for potential complications such as hemorrhage, infection, or other issues related to the surgical site. Assessing urine output is important post-nephrectomy but not as critical as directly monitoring the drainage. Assessing for back muscle aches may be relevant for pain management but not as crucial as monitoring the drainage. Obtaining body weight daily is not directly related to assessing the surgical drain output and is less critical in this scenario.

5. Which techniques should be used to administer an intradermal (ID) injection for a Mantoux test to screen for tuberculosis (TB)? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Observing for an intradermal bleed after the antigen is injected is a proper technique for an ID injection. This is important to confirm the correct placement of the injection. Choice B is correct because the recommended site for an ID injection for a Mantoux test is the volar surface of the forearm. Choice C is incorrect because the standard needle size for an ID injection is usually 26 or 27 gauge with a length of 1/4 to 5/8 inches, not 25 gauge with a length of 1/2 inch. Choice D is incorrect because the needle should be inserted into the skin with the bevel facing up, not down.

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