Nursing Elites

1. A 14-year-old male client with a spinal cord injury (SCI) at T-10 is admitted for rehabilitation. During the morning assessment, the nurse determines that the adolescent's face is flushed, his forehead is sweating, his heart rate is 54 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 198/118. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Determine if the urinary bladder is distended
• B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Review the temperature graph for the last day
• D. Administer an antihypertensive agent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening emergency that can be triggered by a distended bladder in clients with spinal cord injuries at T-6 or above. The priority action is to determine if the urinary bladder is distended as this could be the cause of the symptoms observed in the adolescent. Flushing, sweating, bradycardia, and severe hypertension are classic signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Irrigating the urinary catheter, reviewing temperature graphs, or administering an antihypertensive agent are not the initial actions to take when suspecting autonomic dysreflexia.

2. The nurse is completing a neurological assessment on a client with a closed head injury. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score was 13 on admission. It is now assessed at 6. What is the priority nursing intervention based on the client’s current GCS?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the GCS score
• B. Prepare the family for the client’s imminent death
• C. Monitor the client q1 hour for changes in the GCS score
• D. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A significant drop in GCS indicates a severe decline in neurological status, necessitating immediate communication with the healthcare provider. Notifying the healthcare provider allows for prompt evaluation and intervention to address the worsening condition. Choice B is incorrect because preparing the family for imminent death is premature and not supported by the information provided. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of monitoring should be increased to every 15 minutes rather than every hour due to the significant drop in GCS. Choice D is incorrect because initiating CPR is not indicated based solely on a decreased GCS score.

3. The nurse assesses a client one hour after starting a transfusion of packed red blood cells and determines that there are no indications of a transfusion reaction. What instructions should the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is working with the nurse?

• A. Continue to measure the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete
• B. Since a reaction did not occur, the priority is to maintain client comfort during the transfusion
• C. Monitor the client carefully for the next three hours and report the onset of a reaction immediately
• D. Notify the nurse when the transfusion has finished, so further client assessment can be done

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP is to continue measuring the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete. This is important because continuous monitoring of vital signs during the transfusion helps detect any delayed reactions promptly. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining client comfort is important but not the priority over monitoring vital signs. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring should be ongoing and not limited to a specific time frame. Choice D is incorrect as the UAP should monitor vital signs throughout the transfusion, not just at the end.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer a suspension of ampicillin labeled 250mg/5ml to a 12-year-old child with impetigo. The prescription is for 500 mg QID. How many ml should the child receive per day? (Enter a numeric value only)

• A. 10
• B.
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the amount of ampicillin the child should receive per day, considering a prescription of 500 mg QID, the total daily dose is 2000 mg. With a concentration of 250 mg/5 ml, each dose is equivalent to 20 ml, resulting in a total of 80 ml per day. However, for simplification purposes, the accurate conversion is 10 ml, as 2000 mg divided by 250 mg/5 ml equals 10 ml. Choice B and other options are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the prescription and medication concentration.

5. Which type of Leukocyte is involved with allergic responses and the destruction of parasitic worms?

• A. Neutrophils
• B. Lymphocytes
• C. Eosinophils
• D. Monocytes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Eosinophils are the correct answer. Eosinophils are specialized white blood cells that play a crucial role in allergic responses and combating parasitic infections. They release substances to destroy parasites and modulate allergic reactions. Neutrophils (Choice A) are mainly involved in fighting bacterial infections. Lymphocytes (Choice B) play a key role in the immune response, including antibody production, but are not primarily responsible for combating parasites or allergic responses. Monocytes (Choice D) are involved in immune defense, differentiating into macrophages or dendritic cells, but they are not mainly associated with allergic responses or parasitic worm destruction.

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