Nursing Elites

1. A client with myasthenia gravis (MG) is receiving immunosuppressive therapy. Review of recent laboratory test results shows that the client’s serum magnesium level has decreased below the normal range. In addition to contacting the healthcare provider, what nursing action is most important?

• A. Check the visual difficulties
• B. Note the most recent hemoglobin level
• C. Assess for hand and joint pain
• D. Observe rhythm on telemetry monitor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the rhythm on the telemetry monitor. Decreased magnesium levels can lead to cardiac issues, such as arrhythmias. Monitoring the heart rhythm is crucial in this situation. Checking visual difficulties (choice A) is not directly related to the potential cardiac effects of low magnesium levels. Noting the hemoglobin level (choice B) and assessing for hand and joint pain (choice C) are not the priority when dealing with low magnesium levels and possible cardiac complications.

2. When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions
• B. Schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment
• C. Obtain a blood cortisol level before discharge
• D. Encourage the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.

3. The nurse is completing a neurological assessment on a client with a closed head injury. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score was 13 on admission. It is now assessed at 6. What is the priority nursing intervention based on the client’s current GCS?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the GCS score
• B. Prepare the family for the client’s imminent death
• C. Monitor the client q1 hour for changes in the GCS score
• D. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A significant drop in GCS indicates a severe decline in neurological status, necessitating immediate communication with the healthcare provider. Notifying the healthcare provider allows for prompt evaluation and intervention to address the worsening condition. Choice B is incorrect because preparing the family for imminent death is premature and not supported by the information provided. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of monitoring should be increased to every 15 minutes rather than every hour due to the significant drop in GCS. Choice D is incorrect because initiating CPR is not indicated based solely on a decreased GCS score.

4. The nurse is providing care for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which intervention is most appropriate to include in the care plan?

• A. Instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing
• B. Recommend a high-fat, low-carbohydrate diet
• C. Limit physical activity to prevent shortness of breath
• D. Encourage the client to drink large amounts of fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing. Pursed-lip breathing helps improve ventilation and reduce shortness of breath in COPD clients. This technique involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling through pursed lips. Choice B is incorrect because a high-fat, low-carbohydrate diet is not recommended for individuals with COPD as it can lead to weight gain and worsen respiratory function. Choice C is incorrect as limiting physical activity can lead to deconditioning and worsen COPD symptoms. Regular, moderate exercise is beneficial for individuals with COPD. Choice D is incorrect as excessive fluid intake can strain the heart in COPD clients. It is important to maintain adequate but not excessive fluid intake to prevent dehydration and maintain optimal lung function.

5. The healthcare provider is evaluating a client for potential dehydration. Which assessment finding is most indicative of fluid volume deficit?

• A. Moist mucous membranes
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Decreased skin turgor
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased skin turgor is a classic sign of dehydration. When someone is dehydrated, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less turgid. This change is easily assessed by gently pinching and pulling up the skin on the back of the hand or forearm. If the skin remains elevated or tents rather than quickly returning to its normal position, it indicates dehydration. Moist mucous membranes (Choice A) are actually a sign of adequate hydration. Increased urine output (Choice B) can be a sign of dehydration, but decreased skin turgor is a more specific indicator. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not typically associated with fluid volume deficit and may indicate other health issues.

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