Nursing Elites

1. Before leaving the room of a confused client, the nurse notes that a half bow knot was used to attach the client's wrist restraints to the movable portion of the client's bed frame. What action should the nurse take before leaving the room?

• A. Tie the knot with a double turn or square knot
• B. Ensure that the restraints are snug against the client's wrists
• C. Ensure that the knot can be quickly released
• D. Move the ties so the restraints are secured to the side rails

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority is to ensure that the knot can be quickly released to allow for quick intervention if necessary. Tying the knot with a double turn or square knot (Choice A) may make it more difficult to release quickly in an emergency. Ensuring that the restraints are snug against the client's wrists (Choice B) may compromise circulation and cause discomfort. Moving the ties to secure the restraints to the side rails (Choice D) is not the appropriate action as it can limit the client's movement and access to care.

2. A child is diagnosed with acquired aplastic anemia. The nurse knows that this child has the best prognosis with which treatment regimen?

• A. blood transfusion
• B. chemotherapy
• C. bone marrow transplantation
• D. immunosuppressive therapy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the case of acquired aplastic anemia, bone marrow transplantation offers the best chance of cure as it replaces the abnormal stem cells with healthy ones. Blood transfusion may provide temporary relief by replacing blood cells, but it does not address the root cause of the condition. Chemotherapy may be used in some cases, but it is not the preferred treatment for acquired aplastic anemia. While immunosuppressive therapy can be effective, especially in patients who are not candidates for a bone marrow transplant, it is not the first-line treatment and does not offer the same potential for a cure as bone marrow transplantation.

3. The home health nurse cares for an alert and oriented older adult patient with a history of dehydration. Which instructions should the nurse give to this patient related to fluid intake?

• A. Increase fluids if your mouth feels dry.
• B. More fluids are needed if you feel thirsty.
• C. Drink more fluids in the late evening hours.
• D. If you feel lethargic or confused, you need more to drink.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. An alert, older patient can self-assess for signs of dehydration like dry mouth. This instruction is appropriate as it encourages the patient to respond to early signs of dehydration. Choice B is incorrect because the thirst mechanism decreases with age and feeling thirsty may not accurately indicate the need for fluids. Choice C is incorrect as many older patients prefer to limit evening fluid intake to enhance sleep quality. Choice D is incorrect because an older adult who is lethargic or confused may not be able to accurately assess their need for fluids.

4. An older patient receiving iso-osmolar continuous tube feedings develops restlessness, agitation, and weakness. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?

• A. K+ 3.4 mEq/L (3.4 mmol/L)
• B. Ca+2 7.8 mg/dL (1.95 mmol/L)
• C. Na+ 154 mEq/L (154 mmol/L)
• D. PO4-3 4.8 mg/dL (1.55 mmol/L)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The elevated serum sodium level (154 mEq/L) is consistent with the patient's neurologic symptoms of restlessness, agitation, and weakness, indicating a need for immediate action to prevent complications like seizures. The potassium level (3.4 mEq/L) and calcium level (7.8 mg/dL) are slightly off from normal but do not require immediate action. The phosphate level (4.8 mg/dL) is normal and not related to the symptoms presented by the patient.

5. After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. Patient with a serum potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L who is complaining of abdominal cramping
• B. Patient with a serum sodium level of 145 mEq/L who has a dry mouth and is asking for a glass of water
• C. Patient with a serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
• D. Patient with a serum phosphorus level of 4.5 mg/dL who has multiple soft tissue calcium-phosphate precipitates

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is patient C with a serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes. The low magnesium level and neuromuscular irritability suggest that the patient may be at risk for seizures, which are life-threatening. Assessing and addressing this patient's condition promptly is crucial to prevent complications. Patients A, B, and D have mild electrolyte disturbances or symptoms that require attention, but they are not at immediate risk for life-threatening complications like seizures, unlike patient C.

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