HESI RN
Adult Health 1 HESI
1. A patient is admitted for hypovolemia associated with multiple draining wounds. Which assessment would be the most accurate way for the nurse to evaluate fluid balance?
- A. Skin turgor
- B. Daily weight
- C. Presence of edema
- D. Hourly urine output
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Daily weight is the most easily obtained and accurate means of assessing volume status. Skin turgor varies considerably with age and can be affected by various factors other than fluid balance. Presence of edema indicates excess fluid has moved into the interstitial space, which may not always be directly correlated with overall fluid balance. Hourly urine outputs, though important, do not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid balance as they do not consider fluid intake, insensible losses, or other sources of fluid loss.
2. A female client's significant other has been at her bedside providing reassurances and support for the past 3 days, as desired by the client. The client's estranged husband arrives and demands that the significant other not be allowed to visit or be given condition updates. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Obtain a court order to enforce visitation rights for the significant other
- B. Request a consultation with the ethics committee for resolution of the situation
- C. Suggest involving security to manage the conflict between the husband and the significant other
- D. Discuss with the client the importance of setting clear boundaries with both individuals
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this situation, where there is a conflict between the client's significant other and estranged husband, the most appropriate intervention is to request a consultation with the ethics committee for resolution. This ensures that an impartial body can assess the situation, consider the rights and preferences of all parties involved, and provide guidance on how to proceed in a fair and ethical manner. Obtaining a court order (Choice A) may be a legal option but should be considered after exhausting other conflict resolution methods. Involving security (Choice C) may escalate the situation and should only be considered if there is a risk of harm. Discussing boundaries with the client (Choice D) is important but may not immediately address the current conflict between the significant other and the husband.
3. When assessing a male client, the nurse finds that he is fatigued, and is experiencing muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Based on these findings, the nurse plans to check the client's laboratory values to validate the existence of which?
- A. Hyperphosphatemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypermagnesemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Generalized weakness, muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias are manifestations of hypokalemia. Checking the potassium level is essential in this case. Hypocalcemia typically presents with facial muscle spasms, not the symptoms mentioned. Hypermagnesemia does not typically cause the symptoms described. It's important to note that orange juice is high in potassium and would be advisable to drink if the patient was hypokalemic. Loose stools are more commonly associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.
4. A patient has a parenteral nutrition infusion of 25% dextrose. A student nurse asks the nurse why a peripherally inserted central catheter was inserted. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. There is a decreased risk for infection when 25% dextrose is infused through a central line.
- B. The prescribed infusion can be given much more rapidly when the patient has a central line.
- C. The 25% dextrose is hypertonic and will be more rapidly diluted when given through a central line.
- D. The required blood glucose monitoring is more accurate when samples are obtained from a central line.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The 25% dextrose solution is hypertonic. Shrinkage of red blood cells can occur when solutions with dextrose concentrations greater than 10% are administered IV. Blood glucose testing is not more accurate when samples are obtained from a central line. The infection risk is higher with a central catheter than with peripheral IV lines. Hypertonic or concentrated IV solutions are not given rapidly.
5. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of frequent, watery stools for the last 2 days. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Obtain the baseline weight
- B. Check the patient’s blood pressure
- C. Draw blood for serum electrolyte levels
- D. Ask about any extremity numbness or tingling
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the patient’s blood pressure. Given the patient's symptoms of frequent, watery stools, there is a concern for fluid volume deficit. Assessing the blood pressure helps determine the patient's perfusion status, which is crucial in managing fluid volume deficits. While obtaining baseline weight, drawing blood for serum electrolyte levels, and asking about extremity numbness or tingling are important assessments, checking the blood pressure takes precedence as it provides immediate information on the patient's circulatory status.
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