Nursing Elites

1. A patient is admitted for hypovolemia associated with multiple draining wounds. Which assessment would be the most accurate way for the nurse to evaluate fluid balance?

• A. Skin turgor
• B. Daily weight
• C. Presence of edema
• D. Hourly urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Daily weight is the most easily obtained and accurate means of assessing volume status. Skin turgor varies considerably with age and can be affected by various factors other than fluid balance. Presence of edema indicates excess fluid has moved into the interstitial space, which may not always be directly correlated with overall fluid balance. Hourly urine outputs, though important, do not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid balance as they do not consider fluid intake, insensible losses, or other sources of fluid loss.

2. A postoperative client has three different PRN analgesics prescribed for different levels of pain. The nurse inadvertently administers a dose that is not within the prescribed parameters. What actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess for side effects of the medication.
• B. Document the client's responses.
• C. Complete a medication error report.
• D. Determine if the pain was relieved.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: This is a medication error, and the first step in addressing it is to assess for any side effects of the medication on the patient. Some analgesics can cause respiratory depression, so it is crucial to monitor for vital sign changes or respiratory distress. Once the patient is stable, the next steps would include contacting the provider, documenting the response, and completing a medication error report. Choices B, C, and D are not the immediate priority when dealing with a medication error. While documenting the client's responses and completing a medication error report are important, assessing for side effects and ensuring patient safety come first.

3. While changing a client's post-operative dressing, the nurse observes a red and swollen wound with a moderate amount of yellow and green drainage and a foul odor. Given there is a positive MRSA, which is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Force oral fluids
• B. Request a nutrition consult
• C. Initiate contact precautions
• D. Limit visitors to immediate family only

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take when a client has a positive MRSA and presents with a wound showing signs of infection is to initiate contact precautions. MRSA is highly contagious and placing the patient on contact precautions helps prevent the spread of the bacteria to others in the healthcare setting. (A) Forcing oral fluids will not directly address the MRSA infection. (B) Requesting a nutrition consult is not the priority in this situation. (D) Limiting visitors to immediate family only is not necessary as MRSA precautions are primarily focused on healthcare workers and close contacts who provide direct care.

4. A newly admitted patient is diagnosed with hyponatremia. When making room assignments, the charge nurse should take which action?

• A. Assign the patient to a room near the nurse’s station.
• B. Place the patient in a room nearest to the water fountain.
• C. Place the patient on telemetry to monitor for peaked T waves.
• D. Assign the patient to a semi-private room and place an order for a low-salt diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The patient should be placed near the nurse’s station if confused to allow close monitoring by the staff. To help improve serum sodium levels, water intake is restricted, so a patient with hyponatremia should not be placed near a water fountain. Peaked T waves are a sign of hyperkalemia, not hyponatremia, so telemetry for this purpose is unnecessary. Placing a confused patient in a semi-private room could be disruptive to the other patient. Additionally, the patient needs sodium replacement, not a low-salt diet.

5. A child is diagnosed with acquired aplastic anemia. The nurse knows that this child has the best prognosis with which treatment regimen?

• A. blood transfusion
• B. chemotherapy
• C. bone marrow transplantation
• D. immunosuppressive therapy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the case of acquired aplastic anemia, bone marrow transplantation offers the best chance of cure as it replaces the abnormal stem cells with healthy ones. Blood transfusion may provide temporary relief by replacing blood cells, but it does not address the root cause of the condition. Chemotherapy may be used in some cases, but it is not the preferred treatment for acquired aplastic anemia. While immunosuppressive therapy can be effective, especially in patients who are not candidates for a bone marrow transplant, it is not the first-line treatment and does not offer the same potential for a cure as bone marrow transplantation.

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