HESI RN
Adult Health 1 HESI
1. The nurse is caring for a patient with a massive burn injury and possible hypovolemia. Which assessment data will be of most concern to the nurse?
- A. Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg.
- B. Urine output is 30 mL over the last hour.
- C. Oral fluid intake is 100 mL over the last 8 hours.
- D. There is prolonged skin tenting over the sternum.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg." A low blood pressure reading of 90/40 mm Hg indicates that the patient may be developing hypovolemic shock due to intravascular fluid loss from the burn injury. This finding is of utmost concern as it suggests systemic hypoperfusion, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D also indicate signs of dehydration and the need to increase fluid intake; however, they are not as urgent as addressing the hypotension and potential shock presented in choice A.
2. Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is prescribed for a patient. Which statement by the patient indicates that the teaching about this medication has been effective?
- A. I will try to drink at least 8 glasses of water every day.
- B. I will use a salt substitute to decrease my sodium intake.
- C. I will increase my intake of potassium-containing foods.
- D. I will drink apple juice instead of orange juice for breakfast.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so patients should choose low-potassium foods. Apple juice is a better choice than orange juice in this case as it is lower in potassium. Option A is incorrect because increasing fluid intake excessively is not necessary. Option B is incorrect as salt substitutes are high in potassium, which should be avoided. Option C is incorrect because patients on spironolactone should avoid increasing their potassium intake.
3. An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
- B. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
- C. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
- D. Tell the client that the medication side effects will most likely diminish over time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.
4. A nurse in the outpatient clinic is caring for a patient who has a magnesium level of 1.3 mg/dL. Which assessment would be most important for the nurse to make?
- A. Daily alcohol intake
- B. Intake of dietary protein
- C. Multivitamin/mineral use
- D. Use of over-the-counter (OTC) laxatives
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Daily alcohol intake. Hypomagnesemia is often associated with alcoholism, making it crucial for the nurse to assess the patient's alcohol consumption. Protein intake is not directly related to magnesium levels. The use of over-the-counter laxatives and multivitamin/mineral supplements would typically increase magnesium levels, which are not the focus when dealing with hypomagnesemia.
5. A patient is admitted for hypovolemia associated with multiple draining wounds. Which assessment would be the most accurate way for the nurse to evaluate fluid balance?
- A. Skin turgor
- B. Daily weight
- C. Presence of edema
- D. Hourly urine output
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Daily weight is the most easily obtained and accurate means of assessing volume status. Skin turgor varies considerably with age and can be affected by various factors other than fluid balance. Presence of edema indicates excess fluid has moved into the interstitial space, which may not always be directly correlated with overall fluid balance. Hourly urine outputs, though important, do not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid balance as they do not consider fluid intake, insensible losses, or other sources of fluid loss.
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