HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. What action should the nurse implement for a female client with cancer who has a good appetite but experiences nausea whenever she smells food cooking?
- A. Encourage family members to cook meals outdoors and bring the cooked food inside
- B. Advise the client to replace cooked foods with a variety of different nutritional supplements
- C. Assess the client’s mucus membranes and report the findings to the healthcare provider
- D. Instruct the client to take an antiemetic before every meal to prevent excessive vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to encourage family members to cook meals outdoors and bring the cooked food inside. This strategy can help reduce the smell of cooking food and potentially alleviate the client's nausea triggered by food smells. Assessing the client's mucus membranes (choice C) is not directly related to the client's symptom of nausea triggered by food smells. Instructing the client to take an antiemetic before every meal (choice D) may not address the root cause of the issue, which is the smell of cooking food. Advising the client to replace cooked foods with nutritional supplements (choice B) does not address the immediate problem of food odors triggering nausea.
2. The nurse is measuring the output of an infant admitted for vomiting and diarrhea. During a 12-hour shift, the infant drinks 4 ounces of Pedialyte, vomits 25 ml, and voids twice. The dry diaper weighs 105 grams. Which computer documentation should the nurse enter in the infant’s record?
- A. Subtract vomitus from 120 ml Pedialyte, then document 95 ml oral intake.
- B. Compare the difference between the infant’s current weight and admission weight.
- C. Document on the flow sheet that the infant voided twice and vomited 25 ml.
- D. Calculate the difference in wet and dry diapers and document 80 ml urine.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to document on the flow sheet that the infant voided twice and vomited 25 ml. This choice accurately reflects the need for accurate documentation of intake and output, essential for monitoring the infant's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because the oral intake should not be calculated by subtracting vomitus from the oral intake. Choice B is incorrect because it does not address the specific documentation related to the infant's output. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on calculating urine output based on diaper weight, which is not the primary concern in this scenario.
3. A client with endometrial carcinoma is receiving brachytherapy and has radioactive Cesium loaded in a vaginal applicator. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Wear a dosimeter film badge when in the client’s room
- B. Spend 30 minutes at the bedside when providing direct care
- C. Change the linens every day after assisting with a bed bath
- D. Use gloves to remove the applicator if it is dislodged in the bed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement when caring for a client with a radioactive Cesium-loaded vaginal applicator during brachytherapy is to wear a dosimeter film badge when in the client’s room. Wearing a dosimeter badge is essential to monitor radiation exposure and ensure the safety of healthcare providers. Choice B is incorrect as the duration is not specified and unnecessary. Choice C is incorrect as changing linens daily does not directly relate to radiation safety. Choice D is incorrect as using gloves to remove the applicator if dislodged is important but not the primary action to monitor radiation exposure.
4. A 14-year-old male client with a spinal cord injury (SCI) at T-10 is admitted for rehabilitation. During the morning assessment, the nurse determines that the adolescent's face is flushed, his forehead is sweating, his heart rate is 54 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 198/118. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Determine if the urinary bladder is distended
- B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter
- C. Review the temperature graph for the last day
- D. Administer an antihypertensive agent
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening emergency that can be triggered by a distended bladder in clients with spinal cord injuries at T-6 or above. The priority action is to determine if the urinary bladder is distended as this could be the cause of the symptoms observed in the adolescent. Flushing, sweating, bradycardia, and severe hypertension are classic signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Irrigating the urinary catheter, reviewing temperature graphs, or administering an antihypertensive agent are not the initial actions to take when suspecting autonomic dysreflexia.
5. The healthcare provider prescribed furosemide for a 4-year-old child with a ventricular septal defect. Which outcome indicates to the nurse that this pharmacological intervention was effective?
- A. Urine specific gravity changing from 1.021 to 1.031
- B. Daily weight decrease of 2 pounds (0.9 kg)
- C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) increasing from 8 to 12 mg/dl (2.9 to 4.3)
- D. Urinary output decreasing by 5 ml/hour
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A daily weight decrease of 2 pounds (0.9 kg) is the most appropriate outcome to indicate the effectiveness of furosemide in a child with a ventricular septal defect. Furosemide is a diuretic medication that helps reduce fluid retention. Therefore, a decrease in weight reflects a reduction in fluid volume, which is the desired effect of furosemide. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because changes in urine specific gravity, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels, and urinary output do not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in this context.
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