Nursing Elites

1. After implementing a new fall prevention protocol on the nursing unit, which action by the nurse-manager best evaluates the protocol’s effectiveness?

• A. Compare the number of falls that occurred before and after protocol implementation
• B. Analyze data that reflects the unit’s costs incurred due to the new protocol
• C. Conduct a chart review on the unit to determine the number of clients at risk for falling
• D. Consult with the physical therapist to evaluate the benefits of the new fall protocol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best way to evaluate the effectiveness of a new fall prevention protocol is by comparing the number of falls that occurred before and after its implementation. This direct comparison helps in assessing the impact of the protocol on reducing fall rates. Choices B, C, and D do not directly measure the effectiveness of the protocol. Analyzing costs incurred (Choice B), conducting a chart review (Choice C), or consulting with a physical therapist (Choice D) may provide valuable information but do not specifically evaluate the protocol's effectiveness in preventing falls.

2. An infant is receiving penicillin G procaine 220,000 units IM. The drug is supplied as 600,000 units/ml. How many ml should the nurse administer? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth)

• A. 0.4
• B.
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: Desired dose (220,000 units) / Dose on hand (600,000 units) x Volume of the available dose (1 ml). This results in 0.4 ml to be administered. Choice A is correct. Choice B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not provided.

3. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?

• A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
• B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
• C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
• D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.

4. The nurse is teaching a male adolescent recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) about self-injecting insulin. Which approach is best for the nurse to use to evaluate the effectiveness of the teaching?

• A. Observe him demonstrating the self-injection technique to another diabetic adolescent.
• B. Ask the adolescent to describe his comfort level with injecting himself with insulin.
• C. Review his glycosylated hemoglobin level 3 months after the teaching session.
• D. Have the adolescent list the steps for safe insulin administration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reviewing the glycosylated hemoglobin level after a few months is the best approach to evaluate the effectiveness of teaching self-injection. This measurement provides an objective indicator of the adolescent's glucose control over time, reflecting the impact of insulin self-administration education. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the long-term impact of the teaching on the adolescent's diabetes management.

5. An older male client is admitted to the mental health unit with a sudden onset of global disorientation and is continuously conversing with his mother, who died 50 years ago. The nurse reviews the multiple prescriptions the client is currently taking and assesses his urine specimen, which is cloudy, dark yellow, and has a foul odor. These findings suggest that this client is experiencing which condition?

• A. Psychotic episode
• B. Dementia
• C. Delirium
• D. Depression

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, delirium. The sudden onset of global disorientation along with cloudy, dark yellow urine with a foul odor are indicative of delirium. Delirium is an acute condition characterized by a fluctuating disturbance in awareness and cognition. In this case, the symptoms are suggestive of an underlying physiological cause, such as infection or medication side effects. Choice A, psychotic episode, is less likely as the symptoms are more in line with delirium than a primary psychotic disorder. Choice B, dementia, is a chronic and progressive condition, not typically presenting with sudden onset disorientation. Choice D, depression, does not align with the acute cognitive changes and urine abnormalities described in the scenario.

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