Nursing Elites

1. The nurse implements a tertiary prevention program for type 2 diabetes in a rural health clinic. Which outcome indicates that the program was effective?

• A. Clients who developed disease complications promptly received rehabilitation
• B. More than 50% of at-risk clients were diagnosed early in their disease process
• C. Only 30% of clients did not attend self-management education sessions
• D. Average client scores improved on a specific risk factor knowledge test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in tertiary prevention, the focus is on managing complications and providing rehabilitation. Choice B is more aligned with primary prevention as it focuses on early diagnosis. Choice C's attendance in education sessions is not a direct indicator of managing complications. Choice D's improvement in knowledge does not directly measure the program's effectiveness in managing complications.

2. A client admitted to the intensive care unit with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) has developed osmotic demyelination. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Patch one eye.
• B. Reorient often.
• C. Range of motion.
• D. Evaluate swallow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frequent reorientation is crucial for clients with neurological impairments from osmotic demyelination to prevent confusion and assist with orientation. It helps maintain a proper sense of time, place, and person, reducing disorientation. Patching one eye (Choice A) is not a priority intervention for osmotic demyelination and does not address the immediate need for reorientation. Range of motion exercises (Choice C) may be important for overall care, but reorientation takes precedence due to its impact on neurological functioning. Evaluating swallow (Choice D) is not the primary intervention needed for osmotic demyelination; it is essential but not the first priority.

3. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to perform before ambulating a client with a history of syncope?

• A. Pedal pulses
• B. Breath sounds
• C. Oxygen saturation
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Blood pressure.' It is crucial to check the client's blood pressure before ambulating them, especially if they have a history of syncope. Monitoring blood pressure helps to prevent falls by ensuring that the client's blood pressure is stable enough to tolerate the activity. Choices A, B, and C are not as critical in this scenario. Checking pedal pulses, breath sounds, or oxygen saturation is important but not as crucial as assessing blood pressure when preparing to ambulate a client with a history of syncope.

4. The client who is to avoid any weight-bearing on the left leg is using a 3-point crutch gait for ambulation. What is the best action for the nurse to initiate?

• A. Encourage continued use of the 3-point crutch gait by the client
• B. Encourage the client to use a wheelchair for mobility
• C. Instruct the client in the use of a 4-point crutch gait
• D. Instruct the client in the use of a 2-point crutch gait

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client needs to avoid weight-bearing on the left leg. A 4-point crutch gait involves using both crutches and both legs, making it more appropriate for weight-bearing restrictions. Encouraging the use of a 3-point gait (choice A) would not provide adequate support for the client's condition. While using a wheelchair (choice B) could be an option, instructing the client in a 4-point crutch gait would promote mobility while adhering to weight-bearing restrictions. A 2-point crutch gait (choice D) involves using both crutches and one leg, which is not suitable for avoiding weight-bearing on the left leg.

5. When a UAP reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beats per minute, what action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds.
• B. Determine if the UAP also measured the client's capillary refill time.
• C. Assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical radial pulse deficit is present.
• D. Notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume. A weak pulse with bradycardia (pulse rate of 44 beats per minute) requires immediate follow-up to investigate potential underlying issues. In this situation, it is crucial to involve the healthcare provider for further assessment and intervention. Instructing the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds (Choice A) may delay necessary actions. Determining capillary refill time (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing a weak pulse, and assigning an LPN to assess an apical radial pulse deficit (Choice C) is not as urgent as involving the healthcare provider.

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