Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is performing a peritoneal dialysis exchange on a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. The appearance of the returning dialysate fluid is cloudy
• B. The client complains of slight shortness of breath during installation
• C. The amount of the returning dialysate fluid is greater than the amount instilled
• D. The client complains of abdominal fullness and cramping during instillation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cloudy dialysate fluid can indicate peritonitis, a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis. Peritonitis is an urgent condition that requires immediate evaluation and treatment. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of peritonitis and do not require immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Complaining of slight shortness of breath, having a greater return volume, and experiencing abdominal fullness and cramping are common occurrences during peritoneal dialysis and do not necessarily indicate an emergent issue.

2. A client is admitted to a medical unit with the diagnosis of gastritis and chronic heavy alcohol abuse. What should the nurse administer to prevent the development of Wernicke's syndrome?

• A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Famotidine (Pepcid)
• C. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
• D. Atenolol (Tenormin)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thiamine supplementation is critical in preventing Wernicke's syndrome, especially in clients with chronic alcohol use. Wernicke's syndrome is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome. Famotidine is an H2 blocker used to reduce stomach acid production but does not prevent Wernicke's syndrome. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and angina, not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome.

3. After a client with leukemia undergoes a bone marrow biopsy and is found to have thrombocytopenia, which nursing assessment is most important following the procedure?

• A. Observe the aspiration site
• B. Assess body temperature
• C. Monitor skin elasticity
• D. Measure urinary output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the aspiration site. Thrombocytopenia, characterized by a low platelet count, increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, monitoring the biopsy site for bleeding or hematoma is crucial to ensure early detection and intervention. Assessing body temperature (choice B) is not directly related to the increased bleeding risk associated with thrombocytopenia. Monitoring skin elasticity (choice C) and measuring urinary output (choice D) are important assessments but are not the priority in this situation where bleeding risk needs immediate attention.

4. When conducting diet teaching for a client who is on a postoperative full liquid diet, which foods should the nurse encourage the client to eat?

• A. Vanilla frozen yogurt
• B. Vegetable juice
• C. Clear beef broth
• D. Canned fruit cocktail

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer should be provided as choice E: Vanilla frozen yogurt. For a postoperative full liquid diet, the nurse should encourage the client to eat foods that are fully liquid and easy to digest. Vanilla frozen yogurt is a suitable choice as it provides calories and nutrients while being in a liquid form. Creamy peanut butter, vegetable juice, and canned fruit cocktail are not appropriate for a full liquid diet as they are not fully liquid and may not be easy to digest. Creamy peanut butter is solid, vegetable juice is not fully liquid, and canned fruit cocktail contains solid pieces.

5. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?

• A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
• B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
• C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
• D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.

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