HESI LPN
HESI CAT
1. The nurse notes that a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and non-communicative during the past two weeks. Which intervention is most important to include in the updated plan of care for this client?
- A. Encourage the client's family to visit more often
- B. Schedule a daily conference with the social worker
- C. Encourage the client to participate in group activities
- D. Engage the client in a non-threatening conversation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Engaging the client in a non-threatening conversation is crucial as it can help build trust and provide support, addressing the client's withdrawal. This intervention focuses on establishing a therapeutic relationship and giving the client an opportunity to express their feelings. Choices A, B, and C do not directly target the client's need for communication and may not address the underlying issues contributing to her withdrawal. Encouraging the client's family to visit more often (Choice A) may add pressure or discomfort to the client. Scheduling a daily conference with the social worker (Choice B) may not address the client's immediate need for communication. Encouraging the client to participate in group activities (Choice C) may be overwhelming for the client and not address her withdrawal directly.
2. When administering diazepam, a benzodiazepine, 10 mg IV push PRN for a client with alcohol withdrawal symptoms, which actions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)
- A. Protect the medication from light exposure
- B. Monitor for changes in level of consciousness
- C. Observe for onset of generalized bruising or bleeding
- D. Perform ongoing assessment of respiratory status
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When administering diazepam for a client with alcohol withdrawal symptoms, it is crucial to perform ongoing assessment of respiratory status. Diazepam can lead to respiratory depression, emphasizing the need for continuous monitoring to detect any signs of respiratory distress early. Protecting the medication from light exposure is a general guideline for some drugs but is not a specific concern for diazepam. Observing for bruising or bleeding is not directly associated with the administration of diazepam for alcohol withdrawal symptoms, making choices A and C incorrect.
3. A client who had an intraosseous (IO) cannula placed by the healthcare provider for emergent fluid resuscitation is complaining of severe pain and numbness below the IO site. The skin around the site is pale and edematous. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Discontinue the IO infusion
- B. Administer an analgesic via the IO site
- C. Elevate the extremity with the IO site
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to discontinue the IO infusion. The client's symptoms of severe pain, numbness, pale skin, and edema below the IO site suggest a complication, such as extravasation or compartment syndrome. By discontinuing the infusion, further harm can be prevented. Administering an analgesic via the IO site or elevating the extremity would not address the underlying issue and could potentially worsen the condition. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after stopping the infusion to seek further guidance or intervention.
4. The client with diabetes mellitus type 1 has a fruity breath odor. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Evaluate the client’s intake and output
- B. Measure the client’s capillary blood glucose
- C. Consult with the dietitian about the client’s diet
- D. Apply a pulse oximeter to the client’s finger
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fruity breath odor in a client with diabetes mellitus type 1 can indicate ketoacidosis, a serious complication. Measuring the client’s capillary blood glucose is the priority nursing action in this scenario as it helps diagnose and manage the condition effectively. Evaluating intake and output may be important for overall assessment but not the priority when dealing with a potential emergency like ketoacidosis. Consulting with a dietitian about the client’s diet is important for long-term management but not the immediate priority. Applying a pulse oximeter is not relevant to addressing the fruity breath odor and suspected ketoacidosis.
5. The healthcare provider prescribes lidocaine (Lidoject-1) 100 mg IV push for ventricular tachycardia for an unconscious client. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Measure the client's cardiac output
- B. Assess neurological status q15 min
- C. Collect a blood specimen for serum potassium
- D. Infuse lidocaine (Lidoject-1) at 20 to 50 mg/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority intervention for the nurse is to assess the client's neurological status q15 min. This is crucial to monitor for potential side effects of lidocaine, especially its neurotoxic effects. While measuring the client's cardiac output and collecting a blood specimen for serum potassium are important assessments, assessing the neurological status is the priority when administering lidocaine. Infusing lidocaine at a specific rate should follow the initial assessment of the client's neurological status to ensure safety.
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