the nurse notes that a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and non communicative during the past two weeks which intervention is most impo
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1. The nurse notes that a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and non-communicative during the past two weeks. Which intervention is most important to include in the updated plan of care for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Engaging the client in a non-threatening conversation is crucial as it can help build trust and provide support, addressing the client's withdrawal. This intervention focuses on establishing a therapeutic relationship and giving the client an opportunity to express their feelings. Choices A, B, and C do not directly target the client's need for communication and may not address the underlying issues contributing to her withdrawal. Encouraging the client's family to visit more often (Choice A) may add pressure or discomfort to the client. Scheduling a daily conference with the social worker (Choice B) may not address the client's immediate need for communication. Encouraging the client to participate in group activities (Choice C) may be overwhelming for the client and not address her withdrawal directly.

2. A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2 °F, and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, a sign of dehydration. In this scenario, the child is showing signs of dehydration with increased stool frequency, liquid consistency, fever, and vomiting. Occult blood in the stool may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding but is not a specific sign of dehydration. Abdominal distention can be seen in various conditions and is not a specific indicator of dehydration. Hyperactive bowel sounds can be present in various gastrointestinal conditions but are not directly related to dehydration.

3. After assessing an older adult with a suspected cerebrovascular accident (CVA), the nurse documents the client's right upper arm weakness and slurred speech. When the client complains of a severe headache and nausea, and the neurological assessment remains unchanged, which action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to send the client for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain. A CT scan is crucial in assessing acute changes or bleeding that could influence treatment decisions in a suspected cerebrovascular accident (CVA). While addressing symptoms like headache and nausea is important, ruling out acute changes in the brain with a CT scan takes precedence in this situation. Collecting blood for coagulation times may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Obtaining a history of medication use, recent surgery, or injury is also important but not the first action to take when a CVA is suspected.

4. The healthcare provider is evaluating a client for potential dehydration. Which assessment finding is most indicative of fluid volume deficit?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased skin turgor is a classic sign of dehydration. When someone is dehydrated, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less turgid. This change is easily assessed by gently pinching and pulling up the skin on the back of the hand or forearm. If the skin remains elevated or tents rather than quickly returning to its normal position, it indicates dehydration. Moist mucous membranes (Choice A) are actually a sign of adequate hydration. Increased urine output (Choice B) can be a sign of dehydration, but decreased skin turgor is a more specific indicator. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not typically associated with fluid volume deficit and may indicate other health issues.

5. Several months after a foot injury, an adult woman is diagnosed with neuropathic pain. The client describes the pain as severe and burning and is unable to put weight on her foot. She asks the nurse when the pain will 'finally go away.' How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Assist the client in developing a goal of managing the pain.' In cases of chronic neuropathic pain, complete resolution is often not achievable. Therefore, the most appropriate approach is to help the client develop strategies to manage the pain effectively. Choice A is incorrect because it may give false hope of immediate resolution, which is unlikely with neuropathic pain. Choice C is incorrect as it does not directly address the client's need for pain management. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on functional ability assessment, which is not the priority when addressing the client's pain concerns.

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