the nurse notes that a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and non communicative during the past two weeks which intervention is most impo
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1. The nurse notes that a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and non-communicative during the past two weeks. Which intervention is most important to include in the updated plan of care for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Engaging the client in a non-threatening conversation is crucial as it can help build trust and provide support, addressing the client's withdrawal. This intervention focuses on establishing a therapeutic relationship and giving the client an opportunity to express their feelings. Choices A, B, and C do not directly target the client's need for communication and may not address the underlying issues contributing to her withdrawal. Encouraging the client's family to visit more often (Choice A) may add pressure or discomfort to the client. Scheduling a daily conference with the social worker (Choice B) may not address the client's immediate need for communication. Encouraging the client to participate in group activities (Choice C) may be overwhelming for the client and not address her withdrawal directly.

2. A newly hired unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is assigned to a home healthcare team along with two experienced UAPs. Which intervention should the home health nurse implement to ensure adequate care for all clients?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating the newly hired UAP’s competency by observing them deliver care is the most effective intervention to ensure they can provide safe and effective care. This approach directly assesses the UAP's actual performance and allows for immediate feedback. Option A, asking the most experienced UAP to partner with the newly hired one, may not guarantee that the new UAP is competent. Option C, reviewing the UAP’s skills checklist and experience with the hiring person, does not provide a direct assessment of the UAP's current abilities. Option D, assigning the new UAP to less complex cases, does not address the need to evaluate their competency directly.

3. A client has had several episodes of clear, watery diarrhea that started yesterday. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement in a client experiencing clear, watery diarrhea is to review the client's current list of medications. Certain medications can cause diarrhea as a side effect, so identifying any potential culprits is essential. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) is not appropriate for diarrhea, as antiemetics are used to control nausea and vomiting, not diarrhea. Assessing for hemorrhoids (Choice B) is not the priority when the client is experiencing watery diarrhea; addressing the root cause is crucial. Checking the client’s hemoglobin level (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed for this situation as it does not directly address the cause of diarrhea.

4. An older female client living in a low-income apartment complex tells the home health nurse that she is concerned about her 81-year-old neighbor, a widow whose son recently assumed her financial affairs. Lately, her neighbor has become reclusive but is occasionally seen walking outside wearing only a robe and slippers. What response should the nurse offer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to provide the number for Adult Protective Services so the client can report any suspicion of elder abuse. This action allows for an official investigation into possible elder abuse or neglect, ensuring the neighbor’s safety and well-being. Choice A is incorrect because assuming dementia without evidence is premature and could lead to overlooking potential abuse. Choice B is incorrect as the situation raises concerns about possible neglect or abuse, which should be reported promptly to the appropriate authorities. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the importance of ensuring the safety and well-being of the neighbor in need.

5. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is done to reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, aiding in lung expansion and oxygenation. This position helps improve respiratory mechanics by allowing the diaphragm to move more effectively. Choice B is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed does not directly promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration. Choice C is incorrect because although elevating the head of the bed can assist with airway clearance, its primary purpose in ARDS is to decrease pressure on the diaphragm. Choice D is incorrect because reducing pressure on the medullary center is not the main goal of elevating the head of the bed; the focus is on enhancing lung function and oxygen exchange.

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