Nursing Elites

1. When planning to contact the healthcare provider about a client's need for a belt restraint, what information is most important to report?

• A. The presence and location of any pressure ulcers.
• B. Measures already taken to maintain client safety.
• C. Any special mattresses on the client’s bed.
• D. Current vital signs and oxygen saturation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When reporting to the healthcare provider about a client's need for a belt restraint, it is crucial to provide information on the measures already taken to maintain client safety. This includes detailing alternative strategies that have been tried before considering restraint use. This information helps the healthcare provider assess the situation comprehensively and explore other safety interventions. Choices A, C, and D, though relevant to the client's care, are not as critical to report when discussing the need for a belt restraint. Pressure ulcers (Choice A) are important but not directly related to the need for a belt restraint. The presence of special mattresses (Choice C) may influence overall care but is not the most pertinent information when considering restraints. Current vital signs and oxygen saturation (Choice D) are essential for the client's overall assessment but do not directly address the need for a belt restraint.

2. A young adult client was admitted 36 hours ago for a head injury that occurred as a result of a motorcycle accident. In the last 4 hours, the client’s urine output has increased to over 200 ml/hour. Before reporting the finding to the healthcare provider, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Obtain capillary blood samples for glucose every 2 hours
• B. Measure oral secretions suctioned during the last 4 hours
• C. Evaluate the urine osmolality and serum osmolality values
• D. Obtain blood pressure and assess for dependent edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the urine osmolality and serum osmolality values. The increased urine output following a head injury could indicate diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive urination and extreme thirst. Evaluating osmolality is crucial for diagnosing diabetes insipidus. Choice A is incorrect because obtaining capillary blood samples for glucose every 2 hours is not the priority in this situation. Choice B is irrelevant to the client's current symptom of increased urine output. Choice D is also not the most appropriate intervention as the focus should be on assessing for a potential endocrine issue related to the increased urine output.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left forearm. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the fistula is patent?

• A. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand
• B. The left radial pulse is 2+ bounding
• C. Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm
• D. Assessment of a bruit on the left forearm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm is the correct observation indicating that the AV fistula is patent. A thrill is a palpable vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the fistula, indicating the presence of blood flow. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the patency of the fistula. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand may indicate venous hypertension; a bounding radial pulse could suggest increased blood flow through an artery, but it does not confirm fistula patency; assessment of a bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, but it does not confirm patency.

4. A 37-year-old client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being treated for renal osteodystrophy. Which nursing diagnosis is most likely to be included in this client’s plan of care?

• A. High risk for infection related to subclavian catheter
• B. High risk of injury related to ambulation
• C. Knowledge deficit related to a high-protein diet
• D. Hygiene self-care deficit related to uremic frost

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Uremic frost is a condition in which urea and other waste products are excreted through the skin, leaving a powdery residue. This indicates poor hygiene and self-care, common issues in patients with CKD and renal osteodystrophy. Proper hygiene measures are essential to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be included in the plan of care for a CKD patient with renal osteodystrophy. Choice A is more related to a vascular access issue, choice B is more related to mobility concerns, and choice C is more related to dietary education.

5. An experienced nurse tells the nurse-manager that working with a new graduate is impossible because the new graduate will not listen to suggestions. The new graduate comes to the nurse-manager describing the senior nurse’s attitude as challenging and offensive. What action is best for the nurse manager to take?

• A. Have both nurses meet separately with the staff mental health consultant
• B. Listen actively to both nurses and offer suggestions to solve the dilemma
• C. Ask the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies used with the new graduate
• D. Ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best action for the nurse manager to take is to ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together. This approach promotes open communication, facilitates understanding of both perspectives, and encourages collaborative problem-solving. Option A is not ideal as involving a mental health consultant may be premature for this situation. Option B, although helpful in listening to both parties, does not directly address the need for collaboration. Option C focuses on the senior nurse's mentoring strategies only, rather than addressing the conflict between the two nurses.

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