HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Test Bank
1. When planning to contact the healthcare provider about a client's need for a belt restraint, what information is most important to report?
- A. The presence and location of any pressure ulcers.
- B. Measures already taken to maintain client safety.
- C. Any special mattresses on the client’s bed.
- D. Current vital signs and oxygen saturation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When reporting to the healthcare provider about a client's need for a belt restraint, it is crucial to provide information on the measures already taken to maintain client safety. This includes detailing alternative strategies that have been tried before considering restraint use. This information helps the healthcare provider assess the situation comprehensively and explore other safety interventions. Choices A, C, and D, though relevant to the client's care, are not as critical to report when discussing the need for a belt restraint. Pressure ulcers (Choice A) are important but not directly related to the need for a belt restraint. The presence of special mattresses (Choice C) may influence overall care but is not the most pertinent information when considering restraints. Current vital signs and oxygen saturation (Choice D) are essential for the client's overall assessment but do not directly address the need for a belt restraint.
2. Two weeks following a Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy), a client develops nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after every meal. When the nurse develops a teaching plan for this client, which expected outcome statement is the most relevant?
- A. Describes a schedule for antacid use in combination with other prescribed medications
- B. Selects a pattern of small meals interspersed with fluid intake
- C. Commits to engaging in a variety of stress reduction techniques
- D. Expresses a commitment to decrease nicotine intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The symptoms described are indicative of dumping syndrome, a common complication following a Billroth II procedure. Dumping syndrome presents with symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after meals. To manage these symptoms effectively, the client should opt for small, frequent meals and avoid consuming fluids along with meals. Choice A is inaccurate because antacid use does not directly address the symptoms of dumping syndrome. Choice C is irrelevant as stress reduction techniques are not the primary intervention for dumping syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the symptoms experienced by the client, making it an inappropriate choice.
3. What instruction should the nurse provide a pregnant client experiencing heartburn?
- A. Limit fluid intake between meals to prevent stomach over-distension
- B. Take an antacid at bedtime and when symptoms worsen
- C. Maintain an upright position for two hours after eating
- D. Eat small meals throughout the day to avoid a full stomach
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Eat small meals throughout the day to avoid a full stomach.' Heartburn is common in pregnancy due to increased intra-abdominal pressure and hormonal changes. Consuming small, frequent meals prevents the stomach from becoming overly full, reducing the likelihood of acid reflux and heartburn. Choice A is incorrect because limiting fluid intake between meals may not significantly impact heartburn. Choice B is not ideal as antacids should be taken as directed by a healthcare provider, not just at bedtime or when symptoms worsen. Choice C is less effective advice, as maintaining an upright position after eating may not directly address the root cause of heartburn.
4. Which action should the school nurse take first when conducting a screening for scoliosis?
- A. Compare dorsal trunk measurements
- B. Have the individual extend arms over the head for visualization
- C. Inspect for symmetrical shoulder height
- D. Observe weight-bearing on each leg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Inspecting for symmetrical shoulder height is a crucial initial step in screening for scoliosis. Asymmetry in shoulder height can indicate the presence of spinal curvature, which is a key indicator of scoliosis. This assessment is prioritized as it provides a visual clue to potential spinal abnormalities. Choices A, B, and D are not the first steps in scoliosis screening. Choice A involves a more detailed measurement that is not the primary visual indicator for scoliosis; choice B is not a primary indicator of scoliosis but can be used for further examination, and choice D is not directly related to identifying spinal curvature.
5. The healthcare provider prescribes lidocaine (Lidoject-1) 100 mg IV push for ventricular tachycardia for an unconscious client. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Measure the client's cardiac output
- B. Assess neurological status q15 min
- C. Collect a blood specimen for serum potassium
- D. Infuse lidocaine (Lidoject-1) at 20 to 50 mg/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority intervention for the nurse is to assess the client's neurological status q15 min. This is crucial to monitor for potential side effects of lidocaine, especially its neurotoxic effects. While measuring the client's cardiac output and collecting a blood specimen for serum potassium are important assessments, assessing the neurological status is the priority when administering lidocaine. Infusing lidocaine at a specific rate should follow the initial assessment of the client's neurological status to ensure safety.
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