Nursing Elites

1. A 20-year-old female client tells the nurse that her menstrual periods occur about every 28 days, and her breasts are quite tender when her menstrual flow is heavy. She also states that she performs her breast self-examination (BSE) on the first day of every month. What action should the nurse implement in response to the client's statements?

• A. Remind the client that it is also important to schedule an annual mammogram
• B. Refer the client to a nurse practitioner for an in-depth review of the BSE procedure
• C. Encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after the menstrual period ends
• D. Instruct the client to continue with her regular monthly exams as she is doing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the client to perform breast self-examination (BSE) 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends. This timing is important because breasts are least tender during this phase of the menstrual cycle, allowing for a more effective examination. Choice A is incorrect because while scheduling an annual mammogram is important, the immediate concern is the timing of BSE. Choice B is incorrect as the client's BSE practice just needs a slight adjustment in timing, not an in-depth review. Choice D is incorrect as the client should perform BSE when her breasts are least tender for optimal detection of any abnormalities.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to a 6-month-old child. Which injection site is best for the nurse to use?

• A. Vastus lateralis
• B. Deltoid
• C. Ventrogluteal
• D. Dorsogluteal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for IM injections in infants due to muscle development. In infants under 1 year old, the vastus lateralis muscle in the thigh is often used for IM injections due to its size and development. The deltoid muscle is typically used for adults, and the ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are more commonly used for older children and adults. Therefore, the best choice for administering an IM injection to a 6-month-old child is the vastus lateralis.

3. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client who is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax) IV for the treatment of herpes zoster (shingles)?

• A. Initiate cardiac telemetry monitoring
• B. Maintain continuous pulse oximetry
• C. Perform capillary glucose measurements
• D. Monitor serum creatinine levels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum creatinine levels. Acyclovir can potentially impact kidney function, making it essential to monitor serum creatinine levels to assess renal function. Option A, initiating cardiac telemetry monitoring, is not directly related to acyclovir administration for herpes zoster. Option B, maintaining continuous pulse oximetry, is more relevant in assessing respiratory status rather than monitoring for acyclovir-related side effects. Option C, performing capillary glucose measurements, is not directly associated with acyclovir therapy for herpes zoster.

4. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L. Based on this finding, the nurse should anticipate implementing which action?

• A. Administer an IV of normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin subcutaneously.
• B. Administer a retention enema of Kayexalate.
• C. Add 40 mEq of KCL (potassium chloride) to the present IV solution.
• D. Administer a lidocaine bolus IV push.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute renal failure with a high serum potassium level, the priority intervention is to lower potassium levels to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Administering a retention enema of Kayexalate is the correct action as it helps lower high potassium levels by exchanging sodium for potassium in the intestines. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Administering normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin or adding more potassium to the IV solution can further increase potassium levels, worsening the condition. Lidocaine is not indicated for treating hyperkalemia.

5. A male client with diabetes mellitus takes Novolin 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin (Zithromax) PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of the Zithromax an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Offer to obtain a new breakfast tray in an hour so the client can take the Zithromax
• B. Instruct the client to eat his breakfast and take the Zithromax two hours after eating
• C. Tell the client to skip that day's dose and resume taking the Zithromax the next day
• D. Provide a PRN dose of an antacid to take with the Zithromax right after breakfast

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure the effectiveness of the antibiotic and manage blood glucose levels, the client should take the Zithromax two hours after eating. Option A is incorrect because obtaining a new breakfast tray is not necessary to administer the missed dose. Option C is incorrect as skipping a dose can lead to decreased effectiveness of the antibiotic. Option D is incorrect because providing an antacid is not indicated in this situation.

Similar Questions