Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent male client is admitted to the hospital. Based on Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, which nursing intervention best assists this adolescent’s adjustment to his hospital stay?

• A. Invite him to participate in the evening group activity
• B. Schedule frequent private phone calls to his parents
• C. Provide access to a variety of video games in his room
• D. Encourage him to learn his way around the hospital

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inviting the adolescent to participate in group activities aligns with Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, specifically the stage of developing social relationships. By engaging in group activities, the adolescent can interact with peers, fostering social skills and aiding in adjustment to the hospital environment. Choice B is incorrect as excessive reliance on phone calls to parents may hinder the adolescent's autonomy and independence, which are crucial aspects of Erikson's theory for this age group. Choice C, providing access to video games, while potentially offering entertainment, does not directly address the need for social interaction and relationship-building. Choice D, encouraging the adolescent to learn his way around the hospital, is important for familiarity but may not directly address the need for social interaction and adjustment in the hospital setting.

2. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse’s decision to hold the client’s scheduled antihypertensive medication?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has led to diuresis and lowered the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.
• D. The synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client experiences syncope due to a significant drop in blood pressure after receiving multiple antihypertensive medications, the additive effect of these medications can cause the blood pressure to drop excessively. This additive effect can lead to hypotension, which is why the nurse decided to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication. Choices A, B, and D provide incorrect rationales. Choice A mentions diuresis, which is not directly related to the drop in blood pressure due to additive medication effects. Choice B refers to an antagonistic interaction reducing effectiveness, which is not applicable in this scenario. Choice D talks about a synergistic effect leading to drug toxicity, which is not the cause of the sudden drop in blood pressure observed in the client.

3. A client with osteoporosis related to long-term corticosteroid therapy receives a prescription for calcium carbonate. Which client’s serum laboratory value requires intervention by the nurse?

• A. Total calcium 9 mg/dl (2.25 mmol/L SI)
• B. Creatinine 4 mg/dl (354 micromol/L SI)
• C. Phosphate 4 mg/dl (1.293 mmol/L SI)
• D. Fasting glucose 95 mg/dl (5.3 mmol/L SI)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates possible renal impairment, which requires intervention. High creatinine levels are associated with decreased kidney function, and in this case, it suggests potential renal issues due to long-term corticosteroid therapy. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients with osteoporosis on corticosteroid therapy to prevent further complications. Total calcium levels within the normal range are suitable for a client with osteoporosis receiving calcium carbonate. Phosphate and fasting glucose levels do not directly indicate renal impairment in this scenario.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes lidocaine (Lidoject-1) 100 mg IV push for ventricular tachycardia for an unconscious client. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Measure the client's cardiac output
• B. Assess neurological status q15 min
• C. Collect a blood specimen for serum potassium
• D. Infuse lidocaine (Lidoject-1) at 20 to 50 mg/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for the nurse is to assess the client's neurological status q15 min. This is crucial to monitor for potential side effects of lidocaine, especially its neurotoxic effects. While measuring the client's cardiac output and collecting a blood specimen for serum potassium are important assessments, assessing the neurological status is the priority when administering lidocaine. Infusing lidocaine at a specific rate should follow the initial assessment of the client's neurological status to ensure safety.

5. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for antibiotic treatment of a leg ulcer. Which signs and symptoms, indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Visual disturbances
• C. Presence of uremic frost
• D. Decreased mentation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs and symptoms indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) include increased heart rate, visual disturbances, and decreased mentation. These symptoms are often associated with HHNS due to the high blood glucose levels. Uremic frost, a sign of advanced kidney disease, is not typically associated with HHNS. Therefore, choices B and D are incorrect. However, choice C, 'Presence of uremic frost,' is incorrect as it is not typically associated with HHNS.

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