Nursing Elites

1. A client with a severe prostatic infection that caused a blocked urethra is 3 days post-surgical urinary diversion. The healthcare provider directs the nurse to remove the suprapubic catheter to allow the client to void normally. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Cleanse the site around the catheter
• B. Use a 20 ml syringe to deflate balloon
• C. Clamp catheter until the client voids naturally
• D. Empty urine from the urinary drainage bag

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a 20 ml syringe to deflate the balloon first when removing a suprapubic catheter. This step is essential to ensure the safe removal of the catheter without causing any harm or discomfort to the client. Deflating the balloon allows for the catheter to be easily removed. Option A, cleansing the site around the catheter, is not the initial step in this process and can be done after catheter removal. Option C, clamping the catheter until the client voids naturally, is incorrect as it can lead to complications like urinary retention. Option D, emptying urine from the urinary drainage bag, is not the first step in removing the suprapubic catheter and does not address the need to deflate the balloon for safe removal.

2. To manage the client’s constipation, which suggestions should the nurse provide? (Select all that apply)

• A. Decrease laxative use to every other day and use oil retention enemas as needed.
• B. Include oatmeal with stewed prunes for breakfast as often as possible.
• C. Increase fluid intake by keeping a water glass next to the recliner.
• D. Recommend seeking help with regular shopping and meal preparation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Increasing fluid intake is essential for managing constipation. Adequate hydration helps soften stool and promotes bowel movements. Choices A and B are incorrect as decreasing laxative use without medical advice and suggesting specific foods like oatmeal with stewed prunes may not be suitable for every individual with constipation. Choice D is also incorrect as while seeking help with meal preparation can indirectly aid in managing constipation, the immediate need is to increase fluid intake.

3. The nurse is assigned to care for a client diagnosed with psoriasis. What behavior by the nurse addresses this client's psychosocial need for acceptance?

• A. Wearing gloves when providing care to the client
• B. Encouraging the client to join a support group
• C. Shaking hands with the client during an introduction
• D. Allowing the client to express their feelings openly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to join a support group is the best option to address the client's psychosocial need for acceptance. Support groups provide a sense of belonging, understanding, and acceptance from peers who share similar experiences. This helps the client feel accepted despite their condition. Wearing gloves when providing care, shaking hands during an introduction, and allowing the client to express feelings openly are important but do not directly address the client's need for acceptance.

4. Following rectal surgery, a female client is very anxious about the pain she may experience during defecation. The nurse should collaborate with the healthcare provider to administer which type of medication?

• A. Bulk-forming agent
• B. Antianxiety agent
• C. Stool softener
• D. Stimulant cathartic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After rectal surgery, a stool softener is the most appropriate medication to help prevent pain and straining during defecation. Stool softeners work by increasing the water content of the stool, making it easier to pass without discomfort. Bulk-forming agents (Choice A) help add mass to the stool but may not address the immediate post-operative discomfort. Antianxiety agents (Choice B) would address the anxiety but not the physical discomfort. Stimulant cathartics (Choice D) are not recommended after rectal surgery as they can cause cramping and increased bowel movements, potentially exacerbating pain.

5. A 20-year-old female client tells the nurse that her menstrual periods occur about every 28 days, and her breasts are quite tender when her menstrual flow is heavy. She also states that she performs her breast self-examination (BSE) on the first day of every month. What action should the nurse implement in response to the client’s statements?

• A. Remind the client that it is also important to schedule an annual mammogram.
• B. Refer the client to a nurse practitioner for an in-depth review of the BSE procedure.
• C. Encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends.
• D. Instruct the client to continue with her regular monthly exams as she is doing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends. This timing is recommended because breasts are least tender and swollen at this point, making it easier to detect any abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because while scheduling an annual mammogram is important, it is not the immediate action needed based on the client's statements. Choice B is incorrect as the client's BSE technique timing needs adjustment rather than an in-depth review by a nurse practitioner. Choice D is incorrect because the client should modify the timing of the BSE for better effectiveness.

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