an older male client with a history of type 1 diabetes has not felt well the past few days and arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping and vomit
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam 2024

1. An older male client with a history of type 1 diabetes has not felt well for the past few days and arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping and vomiting. He is lethargic, moderately confused, and cannot remember when he took his last dose of insulin or ate last. What action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering IV fluids is crucial to address potential dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, especially if the client is unable to provide a clear history. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline will help rehydrate the client and address any electrolyte imbalances, which are common in clients with diabetes experiencing symptoms like abdominal cramping and vomiting. Obtaining a serum potassium level can be important but is not the priority when the client is showing signs of dehydration and confusion. Administering insulin should only be done after addressing hydration and electrolyte status. Assessing pupillary response to light is not the most critical action in this situation compared to addressing dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances.

2. Which instruction is most important for the client who receives a new prescription for risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important instruction for a client receiving risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. Risedronate sodium can cause esophageal irritation, and staying upright helps prevent this side effect. While increasing vitamin D intake, starting a low-impact exercise routine, and taking the medication with a full glass of water are all beneficial for managing osteoporosis, the immediate need is to prevent esophageal irritation caused by risedronate sodium.

3. A young adult woman visits the clinic and learns that she is positive for BRCA1 gene mutation and asks the nurse what to expect next. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because counseling will help the woman understand her risk and options for surveillance or preventive measures. At this point, it is crucial to address the woman's immediate concerns related to the BRCA1 gene mutation. Choice B is incorrect as the focus should be on the woman's individual risk due to the specific gene mutation she carries. Choice C is not the priority as treatment options come after assessing the risk and deciding on surveillance or preventive measures. Choice D is incorrect because discussing survival rates is not the immediate need for someone who has just received information about having a genetic mutation.

4. The nurse is performing a peritoneal dialysis exchange on a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cloudy dialysate fluid can indicate peritonitis, a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis. Peritonitis is an urgent condition that requires immediate evaluation and treatment. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of peritonitis and do not require immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Complaining of slight shortness of breath, having a greater return volume, and experiencing abdominal fullness and cramping are common occurrences during peritoneal dialysis and do not necessarily indicate an emergent issue.

5. In developing a plan of care for a client admitted to a mental health unit after attempting suicide by taking a handful of medications, which goal has the highest priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Signs a no-self-harm contract. Ensuring the client’s immediate safety by having them commit to not engaging in self-harm is the highest priority after a suicide attempt. This measure aims to prevent further harm to the client. While sleep, group therapy, and self-image are important aspects of care, they are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the immediate aftermath of a suicide attempt. Prioritizing the establishment of a no-self-harm contract creates a foundation for addressing other therapeutic goals in the client's care plan.

Similar Questions

What information is most important for the nurse to provide to an adolescent female prescribed azithromycin for lower lobe pneumonia and recurrent chlamydia?
The nurse is managing the care of a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which interventions should the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply)
The nurse notes that a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and non-communicative during the past two weeks. Which intervention is most important to include in the updated plan of care for this client?
A male client admitted three days ago with respiratory failure is intubated and receiving 40% oxygen per facemask. Currently, his temperature is 99°F, capillary refill is less than 4 seconds, and respiratory effort is within normal limits. What outcome should the nurse evaluate to measure for successful extubation?
In preparing a care plan for a client admitted with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome, which nursing problem has the highest priority?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses