Nursing Elites

1. An older male client with a history of type 1 diabetes has not felt well for the past few days and arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping and vomiting. He is lethargic, moderately confused, and cannot remember when he took his last dose of insulin or ate last. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. obtain a serum potassium level
• B. administer the client's usual dose of insulin
• C. assess pupillary response to light
• D. Start an intravenous (IV) infusion of normal saline

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering IV fluids is crucial to address potential dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, especially if the client is unable to provide a clear history. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline will help rehydrate the client and address any electrolyte imbalances, which are common in clients with diabetes experiencing symptoms like abdominal cramping and vomiting. Obtaining a serum potassium level can be important but is not the priority when the client is showing signs of dehydration and confusion. Administering insulin should only be done after addressing hydration and electrolyte status. Assessing pupillary response to light is not the most critical action in this situation compared to addressing dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances.

2. An adult male who admits to abusing IV drugs obtains the results of HIV testing. When informed that the results are positive, he states that he does not want his wife to know. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Tell the client he is required by law to inform his sexual partners of his HIV status
• B. Counsel the client about the importance of notifying his sexual partner
• C. Inform the wife of her health risk related to her husband's HIV results
• D. Report the client's status as a sexually transmitted case to the health department

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should counsel the client on the importance of notifying partners about HIV status while respecting confidentiality. Mandatory partner notification laws vary by jurisdiction, so option A cannot be universally applied. Breaching patient confidentiality, as suggested in option C, is unethical. Reporting the client's status to the health department without consent, as in option D, is not appropriate as HIV status is confidential information and is not automatically reported as a sexually transmitted case.

3. Which techniques should be used to administer an intradermal (ID) injection for a Mantoux test to screen for tuberculosis (TB)? Select all that apply.

• A. Observe for an intradermal bleed after the antigen is injected
• B. Select an ID site using the volar surface of the forearm
• C. Use a 26 or 27-gauge needle with a length of 1/4 to 5/8 inches on a 1 ml calibrated syringe
• D. Ensure that the needle is inserted into the skin with the bevel up

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Observing for an intradermal bleed after the antigen is injected is a proper technique for an ID injection. This is important to confirm the correct placement of the injection. Choice B is correct because the recommended site for an ID injection for a Mantoux test is the volar surface of the forearm. Choice C is incorrect because the standard needle size for an ID injection is usually 26 or 27 gauge with a length of 1/4 to 5/8 inches, not 25 gauge with a length of 1/2 inch. Choice D is incorrect because the needle should be inserted into the skin with the bevel facing up, not down.

4. A client with a large pleural effusion undergoes a thoracentesis. Following the procedure, which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. The client has asymmetrical chest wall expansion
• B. The client complains of pain at the insertion site
• C. The client's chest x-ray indicates decreased pleural effusion
• D. The client's arterial blood gases show pH 7.35, PaO2 85, PaCO2 35, HCO3 26

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asymmetrical chest wall expansion is a critical finding post-thoracentesis as it may suggest a pneumothorax, requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The other options, such as pain at the insertion site (Choice B), decreased pleural effusion on chest x-ray (Choice C), and normal arterial blood gases within acceptable ranges (Choice D) do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like asymmetrical chest wall expansion does.

5. When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions
• B. Schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment
• C. Obtain a blood cortisol level before discharge
• D. Encourage the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.

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