HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. Identify the placement of the stapes footplate into the bony labyrinth.
- A. Fenestra vestibuli
- B. Fenestra cochleae
- C. Tympanic membrane
- D. Round window
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fenestra vestibuli. The stapes footplate is placed into the fenestra vestibuli of the bony labyrinth. This structure is also known as the oval window and is located at the junction of the middle ear and inner ear. Choice B, Fenestra cochleae, is incorrect as this opening is also known as the round window and is located near the base of the cochlea. Choice C, Tympanic membrane, is incorrect as it is also known as the eardrum and separates the external ear from the middle ear. Choice D, Round window, is incorrect as it is the opening covered by the secondary tympanic membrane and is important for the dissipation of sound waves in the cochlea.
2. The client who is to avoid any weight-bearing on the left leg is using a 3-point crutch gait for ambulation. What is the best action for the nurse to initiate?
- A. Encourage continued use of the 3-point crutch gait by the client
- B. Encourage the client to use a wheelchair for mobility
- C. Instruct the client in the use of a 4-point crutch gait
- D. Instruct the client in the use of a 2-point crutch gait
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client needs to avoid weight-bearing on the left leg. A 4-point crutch gait involves using both crutches and both legs, making it more appropriate for weight-bearing restrictions. Encouraging the use of a 3-point gait (choice A) would not provide adequate support for the client's condition. While using a wheelchair (choice B) could be an option, instructing the client in a 4-point crutch gait would promote mobility while adhering to weight-bearing restrictions. A 2-point crutch gait (choice D) involves using both crutches and one leg, which is not suitable for avoiding weight-bearing on the left leg.
3. Which type of wound would most likely require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?
- A. Laceration
- B. Abrasion
- C. Contusion
- D. Ulceration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A laceration would most likely require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider due to its deeper tissue damage, significant bleeding, and higher risk of infection compared to abrasions, contusions, and ulcerations. Lacerations often need prompt attention to control bleeding, clean the wound, and reduce the risk of infection. Abrasions are superficial wounds that usually do not require urgent attention as they tend to heal well on their own with basic wound care. Contusions are bruises that typically resolve on their own without immediate intervention. Ulcerations are open sores that may require intervention but not necessarily immediate action unless complicated by infection or other issues.
4. An adult male with a 6 cm thoracic aneurysm is being prepared for surgery. The nurse reports to the healthcare provider that the client’s blood pressure is 220/112 mmHg, so an antihypertensive agent is added to the client’s IV infusion. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Reports a tearing, sharp pain between his shoulder blades
- B. Blood pressure reading of 200/100 mmHg 15 minutes later
- C. Rose-colored urine draining from the urinary catheter
- D. Sinus tachycardia with frequent premature ventricular beats (PVC)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A tearing, sharp pain between the shoulder blades may indicate aortic dissection, a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. This symptom is highly concerning in a patient with a thoracic aneurysm. Choice B is not as urgent as the pain symptom described in choice A. Choice C could indicate hematuria but is not as critical as the potential aortic dissection in choice A. Choice D, sinus tachycardia with PVCs, may be related to the patient's condition but is not as indicative of an immediate life-threatening situation as the tearing, sharp pain indicative of aortic dissection.
5. The nurse is assessing an older adult with type 2 diabetes. Which assessment finding indicates that the client understands long-term control of diabetes?
- A. The fasting blood sugar was 120 mg/dL this morning
- B. Urine ketones have been negative for the past 6 months
- C. The hemoglobin A1C was 6.5% last week
- D. No diabetic ketoacidosis has occurred in 6 months
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An A1C level of 6.5% indicates good long-term control of diabetes as it reflects the average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. Monitoring fasting blood sugar provides immediate information about the current blood sugar level, while the absence of urine ketones indicates short-term control. Although the absence of diabetic ketoacidosis is positive, it doesn't specifically reflect long-term control like the A1C level does.
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