HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam
1. A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2 °F, and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?
- A. Occult blood in the stool
- B. Abdominal distention
- C. Elevated urine specific gravity
- D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevated urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, a sign of dehydration. In this scenario, the child is showing signs of dehydration with increased stool frequency, liquid consistency, fever, and vomiting. Occult blood in the stool may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding but is not a specific sign of dehydration. Abdominal distention can be seen in various conditions and is not a specific indicator of dehydration. Hyperactive bowel sounds can be present in various gastrointestinal conditions but are not directly related to dehydration.
2. A continuous infusion of nitroglycerin is prescribed for an adult male admitted with an acute myocardial infarction. The client is experiencing active chest pain that he describes as 8 out of 10. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Administer the infusion via an infusion pump
- B. Obtain the current serum potassium level
- C. Continuously monitor blood pressure
- D. Teach guided imagery to decrease pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Continuously monitoring blood pressure is crucial in this case because nitroglycerin can cause hypotension as a side effect. Monitoring blood pressure allows the nurse to assess the client's response to the medication and detect any signs of hypotension promptly. This intervention is essential to ensure the effectiveness of nitroglycerin therapy and prevent potential complications. Administering the infusion via an infusion pump is important for accurate dosing but not the most critical at this moment. Obtaining the current serum potassium level is important but not the most immediate concern when the client is experiencing active chest pain. Teaching guided imagery may be beneficial for pain management, but in this scenario, monitoring blood pressure takes precedence due to the potential side effects of nitroglycerin.
3. In what order should the nurse perform the steps of a surgical hand scrub prior to entering the operating room?
- A. Rinse from the fingertips to the elbow
- B. Scrape under the nails with a nail pick
- C. Use a soapy brush to scrub the hands
- D. Cleanse the arm with a lathered brush
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct order for performing a surgical hand scrub is to first scrape under the nails with a nail pick, then scrub the hands using a soapy brush, cleanse the arms, and finally rinse. This sequence ensures thorough cleaning and minimizes the risk of contamination. Choice A is incorrect because rinsing should be the final step, not the first. Choice C is incorrect as scrubbing the hands comes after scraping under the nails. Choice D is incorrect as cleansing the arms should follow hand scrubbing, not precede it.
4. While eating at a restaurant, a gravid woman begins to choke and is unable to speak. What action should the nurse who witnesses the event take?
- A. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation with uterine tilt
- B. The Heimlich maneuver using chest thrusts
- C. The Heimlich maneuver using subdiaphragmatic thrusts
- D. Call 911 immediately then begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a pregnant woman is choking and unable to speak is to perform the Heimlich maneuver using subdiaphragmatic thrusts. This technique is recommended for a pregnant woman to prevent harm to the fetus. Option A, cardiopulmonary resuscitation with uterine tilt, is not indicated for a choking episode. Option B, the Heimlich maneuver using chest thrusts, can potentially harm the gravid uterus. Option D, calling 911 immediately before providing assistance, can lead to a delay in addressing the immediate choking emergency.
5. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?
- A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
- B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
- C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
- D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.
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