Nursing Elites

1. A 3-year-old boy was successfully toilet trained prior to his admission to the hospital for injuries sustained from a fall. His parents are very concerned that the child has regressed in his toileting behaviors. Which information should the nurse provide to the parents?

• A. Children usually resume their toileting behaviors when they leave the hospital
• B. A retraining program will need to be initiated when the child returns home
• C. Diapering will be provided since hospitalization is stressful to preschoolers
• D. A potty chair should be brought from home so he can maintain his toileting skills

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Children often regress in toileting behaviors during hospitalization due to stress and changes in routine. However, they usually resume normal behaviors once they are discharged and back in their familiar environment. Providing reassurance to the parents that the child is likely to return to his previous toileting habits after leaving the hospital can help alleviate their concerns. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the normal pattern of behavior regression and recovery in toileting skills associated with hospitalization.

2. The nurse is assessing a 3-month-old infant who had a pylorotomy yesterday. This child should be medicated for pain based on which finding?

• A. Restlessness
• B. Clenched Fist
• C. Increased pulse rate
• D. Increased respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In infants, restlessness can be a significant indicator of discomfort or pain, necessitating appropriate pain management. While choices B, C, and D can also be associated with pain, restlessness is a more general and reliable indicator in this scenario. A clenched fist might indicate pain or distress, but it is not as specific as restlessness in assessing pain in infants. Increased pulse rate and respiratory rate can be influenced by various factors other than pain, making them less reliable indicators of pain in this context.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes lidocaine (Lidoject-1) 100 mg IV push for ventricular tachycardia for an unconscious client. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Measure the client's cardiac output
• B. Assess neurological status q15 min
• C. Collect a blood specimen for serum potassium
• D. Infuse lidocaine (Lidoject-1) at 20 to 50 mg/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for the nurse is to assess the client's neurological status q15 min. This is crucial to monitor for potential side effects of lidocaine, especially its neurotoxic effects. While measuring the client's cardiac output and collecting a blood specimen for serum potassium are important assessments, assessing the neurological status is the priority when administering lidocaine. Infusing lidocaine at a specific rate should follow the initial assessment of the client's neurological status to ensure safety.

4. A client has a history of vasovagal attacks resulting in brady-dysrhythmias. Which instruction is most important to include in the teaching plan?

• A. Use stool softeners regularly
• B. Avoid electromagnetic fields
• C. Maintain a low-fat diet
• D. Do not use aspirin products

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use stool softeners regularly.' Vasovagal attacks can be triggered by straining, and using stool softeners can help prevent such attacks. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to preventing vasovagal attacks in this context. Avoiding electromagnetic fields, maintaining a low-fat diet, or not using aspirin products are important for various health reasons but not specifically for preventing vasovagal attacks related to brady-dysrhythmias.

5. When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions
• B. Schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment
• C. Obtain a blood cortisol level before discharge
• D. Encourage the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.

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