a client is admitted with the diagnosis of wernickes syndrome what assessment finding should the nurse use in planning the clients care
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HESI CAT Exam Test Bank

1. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of Wernicke’s syndrome. What assessment finding should the nurse use in planning the client’s care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion is a key symptom of Wernicke’s syndrome, which is due to thiamine deficiency. Wernicke’s syndrome is characterized by a triad of symptoms known as the classic triad, which includes confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Right lower abdominal pain, depression, and peripheral neuropathy are not typically associated with Wernicke’s syndrome, making them incorrect choices for this question.

2. A young adult female presents at the emergency center with acute lower abdominal pain. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A missed menstrual period could indicate a possible pregnancy-related issue, requiring urgent evaluation. Assessing the menstrual history in a female of reproductive age takes precedence in this scenario. Choice A, the pain scale rating, is important but not as urgent as evaluating the menstrual history. Choice C, reporting white curdy vaginal discharge, may suggest a vaginal infection but is not as critical as ruling out a potential pregnancy. Choice D, the history of irritable bowel syndrome, is relevant but not as crucial as determining pregnancy-related issues in this context.

3. A male client with schizophrenia is jerking his neck and smacking his lips. Which finding indicates to the nurse that he is experiencing an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic agents?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Worming movements of the tongue. Worming movements of the tongue, known as tardive dyskinesia, are an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities. Cramping muscular pain (Choice A) is more indicative of dystonia, an extrapyramidal side effect that can be treated effectively with antiparkinsonian medications. Decreased tendon reflexes (Choice C) are not typically associated with irreversible side effects of antipsychotic agents. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice D) are not specific to irreversible side effects of antipsychotic medications.

4. An infant is receiving penicillin G procaine 220,000 units IM. The drug is supplied as 600,000 units/ml. How many ml should the nurse administer? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: Desired dose (220,000 units) / Dose on hand (600,000 units) x Volume of the available dose (1 ml). This results in 0.4 ml to be administered. Choice A is correct. Choice B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not provided.

5. A client with major depression who is taking fluoxetine calls the psychiatric clinic reporting being more agitated, irritable, and anxious than usual. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased agitation, irritability, and anxiety can be signs of serotonin syndrome or other serious side effects, not common side effects of fluoxetine. Instructing the client to seek medical attention immediately is crucial to address any potential serious adverse reactions. Option A is unnecessary as a CBC would not address the symptoms described. Option C is not the priority when serious side effects are suspected. Option D is incorrect as these symptoms should not be dismissed as common side effects.

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