Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of Wernicke’s syndrome. What assessment finding should the nurse use in planning the client’s care?

• A. Right lower abdominal pain
• B. Confusion
• C. Depression
• D. Peripheral neuropathy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion is a key symptom of Wernicke’s syndrome, which is due to thiamine deficiency. Wernicke’s syndrome is characterized by a triad of symptoms known as the classic triad, which includes confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Right lower abdominal pain, depression, and peripheral neuropathy are not typically associated with Wernicke’s syndrome, making them incorrect choices for this question.

2. A continuous infusion of nitroglycerin is prescribed for an adult male admitted with an acute myocardial infarction. The client is experiencing active chest pain that he describes as 8 out of 10. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Administer the infusion via an infusion pump
• B. Obtain the current serum potassium level
• C. Continuously monitor blood pressure
• D. Teach guided imagery to decrease pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Continuously monitoring blood pressure is crucial in this case because nitroglycerin can cause hypotension as a side effect. Monitoring blood pressure allows the nurse to assess the client's response to the medication and detect any signs of hypotension promptly. This intervention is essential to ensure the effectiveness of nitroglycerin therapy and prevent potential complications. Administering the infusion via an infusion pump is important for accurate dosing but not the most critical at this moment. Obtaining the current serum potassium level is important but not the most immediate concern when the client is experiencing active chest pain. Teaching guided imagery may be beneficial for pain management, but in this scenario, monitoring blood pressure takes precedence due to the potential side effects of nitroglycerin.

3. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?

• A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
• B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
• C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
• D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.

4. A 9-year-old received a short arm cast for a right radius. To relieve itching under the child’s cast, which instructions should the nurse provide to the parents?

• A. Blow cool air from a hair dryer under the cast
• B. Twist the cast back and forth
• C. Shake powder into the cast
• D. Push a pencil under the cast edge

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Blowing cool air from a hair dryer under the cast is a safe method to relieve itching without damaging the cast or causing injury. The air helps to dry out the moisture that is causing the itching. Twisting the cast back and forth (choice B) can create pressure points and discomfort for the child. Shaking powder into the cast (choice C) can introduce foreign material that may cause skin irritation. Pushing a pencil under the cast edge (choice D) can injure the child's skin or even dislodge the cast.

5. A 20-year-old female client tells the nurse that her menstrual periods occur about every 28 days, and her breasts are quite tender when her menstrual flow is heavy. She also states that she performs her breast self-examination (BSE) on the first day of every month. What action should the nurse implement in response to the client’s statements?

• A. Remind the client that it is also important to schedule an annual mammogram.
• B. Refer the client to a nurse practitioner for an in-depth review of the BSE procedure.
• C. Encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends.
• D. Instruct the client to continue with her regular monthly exams as she is doing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends. This timing is recommended because breasts are least tender and swollen at this point, making it easier to detect any abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because while scheduling an annual mammogram is important, it is not the immediate action needed based on the client's statements. Choice B is incorrect as the client's BSE technique timing needs adjustment rather than an in-depth review by a nurse practitioner. Choice D is incorrect because the client should modify the timing of the BSE for better effectiveness.

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