Nursing Elites

1. Which situation is a violation of client confidentiality, as described in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?

• A. A sign-in sheet kept at the front desk listing clients' last names and the time of their arrival
• B. A nurse's handwritten notes from a telephone report discarded in the office wastebasket
• C. A computer monitor screen located at the nurse's station in a high-traffic area
• D. Privileged Health Information (PHI) given to an ambulance driver for the transfer of a client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is a violation of client confidentiality as it exposes patient information to unauthorized individuals due to its location in a high-traffic area. HIPAA regulations require that electronic protected health information (ePHI) be safeguarded against unauthorized access, making the situation described in choice C a violation. Choices A, B, and D do not directly involve the exposure of patient information to unauthorized individuals. While choices A and B may pose some risks, they are not as severe as the direct exposure described in choice C. Choice D involves sharing information with an ambulance driver for a legitimate purpose, which does not violate HIPAA if done securely and in compliance with regulations.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer an IM dose of vitamin B1 (Thiamine) to a male client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal and peripheral neuritis. The client belligerently states, “What do you think you’re doing?” How should the nurse respond?

• A. “I cannot give you this medication until you calm down.”
• B. “This shot will help relieve the pain in your feet.”
• C. “Would you prefer to learn to administer your own shot?”
• D. “You will feel calmer and less jittery after this shot.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is to provide a relevant explanation to the client. Choice B, “This shot will help relieve the pain in your feet,” is the best answer because it directly addresses the client's concern about the purpose of the medication. By explaining the potential benefit of the injection, the nurse can alleviate the client's anxiety and increase their cooperation during the procedure. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's question and may escalate the situation. Choice C is not suitable as it deviates from addressing the client's immediate query. Choice D is incorrect because it fails to specifically address the client's concern regarding the medication's purpose.

3. Several clients on a busy antepartum unit are scheduled for procedures that require informed consent. Which situation should the nurse explore further before witnessing the client's signature on the consent form?

• A. The client was medicated for pain with a narcotic analgesic IM 6 hours ago
• B. A 15-year-old primigravida who has been self-supporting for the past 6 months
• C. The obstetrician explained a procedure that a neurologist will perform
• D. The client is illiterate but verbalizes understanding and consent for the procedure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an illiterate client may require additional support to ensure they fully comprehend the information provided in the informed consent process. It is crucial to confirm that the client truly understands the nature of the procedure, its risks, and benefits. While it is important to assess pain control (choice A), a client's previous medication administration does not directly impact their ability to understand the consent process. Choice B, a 15-year-old primigravida who has been self-supporting, may legally provide informed consent depending on the jurisdiction and circumstances, so this situation may not require further exploration. Choice C, explaining a procedure by a different specialist, does not necessarily require additional exploration before witnessing the client's consent.

4. A 17-year-old adolescent is brought to the emergency department by both parents because the adolescent has been coughing and running a fever with flu-like symptoms for the past 24 hours. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain a chest X-ray per protocol.
• B. Place a mask on the client’s face.
• C. Assess the client’s temperature.
• D. Determine the client’s blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to implement first is to place a mask on the client's face. This is crucial to prevent the potential spread of infectious agents to others in the emergency department, considering the presenting symptoms of coughing and fever. Placing a mask helps in containing respiratory secretions and reducing the risk of airborne transmission. Assessing the client’s temperature or blood pressure can be done after ensuring infection control measures. Obtaining a chest X-ray would be a secondary intervention once immediate infection control is addressed.

5. A client with renal disease seems anxious and presents with the onset of shortness of breath, lethargy, edema, and weight gain. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Determine serum potassium level
• B. Calculate the client’s daily fluid intake
• C. Assess client for signs of vertigo
• D. Review the client’s pulse oximetry reading

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to determine the client's serum potassium level. In a client with renal disease experiencing symptoms like shortness of breath, lethargy, edema, and weight gain, assessing serum potassium levels is crucial. Electrolyte imbalances, including potassium, can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Calculating daily fluid intake may be important but addressing acute symptoms related to electrolyte imbalances takes precedence. Assessing for signs of vertigo and reviewing pulse oximetry reading are not the priority in this scenario compared to assessing and managing potential electrolyte imbalances.

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