HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. A client is admitted with pyelonephritis, and cultures reveal an Escherichia coli infection. The client is allergic to penicillins, and the healthcare provider prescribed vancomycin IV. The nurse should plan to carefully monitor the client for which finding during IV administration?
- A. Tissue sloughing upon extravasation
- B. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate
- C. Tinnitus and vertigo
- D. Erythema of the face, neck, and chest
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tinnitus and vertigo. Vancomycin can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, leading to symptoms like tinnitus and vertigo. Monitoring for these adverse effects is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tissue sloughing, elevated blood pressure and heart rate, and erythema of the face, neck, and chest are not typically associated with vancomycin administration. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for signs of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity such as tinnitus and vertigo.
2. What instruction should the nurse provide a pregnant client experiencing heartburn?
- A. Limit fluid intake between meals to prevent stomach over-distension
- B. Take an antacid at bedtime and when symptoms worsen
- C. Maintain an upright position for two hours after eating
- D. Eat small meals throughout the day to avoid a full stomach
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Eat small meals throughout the day to avoid a full stomach.' Heartburn is common in pregnancy due to increased intra-abdominal pressure and hormonal changes. Consuming small, frequent meals prevents the stomach from becoming overly full, reducing the likelihood of acid reflux and heartburn. Choice A is incorrect because limiting fluid intake between meals may not significantly impact heartburn. Choice B is not ideal as antacids should be taken as directed by a healthcare provider, not just at bedtime or when symptoms worsen. Choice C is less effective advice, as maintaining an upright position after eating may not directly address the root cause of heartburn.
3. Which instruction is most important for the client who receives a new prescription for risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis?
- A. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication
- B. Increase intake of foods rich in vitamin D
- C. Begin a low-impact exercise routine
- D. Take the medication with a full glass of water
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important instruction for a client receiving risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. Risedronate sodium can cause esophageal irritation, and staying upright helps prevent this side effect. While increasing vitamin D intake, starting a low-impact exercise routine, and taking the medication with a full glass of water are all beneficial for managing osteoporosis, the immediate need is to prevent esophageal irritation caused by risedronate sodium.
4. An adult male was diagnosed with stage IV lung cancer three weeks ago. His wife approaches the nurse and asks how she will know that her husband's death is imminent because their two adult children want to be there when he dies. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Explain that the client will start to lose consciousness and his body systems will slow down
- B. Reassure the spouse that the healthcare provider will let her know when to call the children
- C. Offer to discuss the client’s health status with each of the adult children
- D. Gather information on how long it will take for the children to arrive
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to explain that the client will start to lose consciousness and his body systems will slow down. Providing information on the signs of impending death helps the family prepare emotionally and allows them to be present at the appropriate time. Choice B is incorrect because it does not empower the family with the knowledge they seek. Choice C is incorrect as discussing the client’s health status individually with the adult children may not address the wife's immediate concern. Choice D is incorrect as the priority should be on preparing the family for the signs of imminent death rather than focusing on logistical details.
5. Which type of wound would most likely require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?
- A. Laceration
- B. Abrasion
- C. Contusion
- D. Ulceration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A laceration would most likely require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider due to its deeper tissue damage, significant bleeding, and higher risk of infection compared to abrasions, contusions, and ulcerations. Lacerations often need prompt attention to control bleeding, clean the wound, and reduce the risk of infection. Abrasions are superficial wounds that usually do not require urgent attention as they tend to heal well on their own with basic wound care. Contusions are bruises that typically resolve on their own without immediate intervention. Ulcerations are open sores that may require intervention but not necessarily immediate action unless complicated by infection or other issues.
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