Nursing Elites

1. During a well-child check-up, what respiratory assessment finding should the nurse anticipate in a 3-year-old?

• A. A resting respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute
• B. Bronchovesicular breath sounds in the peripheral lung fields
• C. Retractions in the intercostal spaces with each inspiration
• D. High-pitched whistling sounds over the bronchi

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A resting respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute is within the expected range for a 3-year-old child. This is considered normal in this age group as their respiratory rate is generally higher compared to adults. Bronchovesicular breath sounds in the peripheral lung fields are not an expected finding in a 3-year-old. Retractions in the intercostal spaces with each inspiration indicate increased work of breathing and are abnormal. High-pitched whistling sounds over the bronchi are characteristic of wheezing, which is not typically expected in a healthy 3-year-old during a routine check-up.

2. The healthcare provider believes that a client who frequently requests pain medication may have a substance abuse problem. Which intervention reflects the healthcare provider's value of client autonomy over veracity?

• A. Administer the prescribed analgesic when requested
• B. Refer the client to a substance abuse program
• C. Collaborate with the healthcare provider to provide a placebo
• D. Document the frequency of medication requests

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering the prescribed analgesic when requested is the most appropriate intervention that reflects the healthcare provider's value of client autonomy over veracity. This action respects the client's right to manage their pain and avoids deception. Referring the client to a substance abuse program (Choice B) assumes a diagnosis without evidence and does not respect the client's autonomy. Collaborating to provide a placebo (Choice C) would involve deception, which goes against the value of veracity. Documenting the frequency of medication requests (Choice D) is important for the client's care but does not directly address the issue of respecting client autonomy over veracity.

3. When caring for a client with diabetes insipidus (DI), it is most important for the nurse to include frequent assessment for which conditions in the client’s plan of care?

• A. Dry mucous membranes, hypotension
• B. Decreased appetite, headache
• C. Nausea and vomiting, muscle weakness
• D. Elevated blood pressure, petechiae

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes and hypotension are key indicators of dehydration in clients with diabetes insipidus. The excessive urination associated with DI can lead to fluid loss, resulting in dehydration. Therefore, monitoring for signs such as dry mucous membranes and hypotension is crucial to assess the client's hydration status. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the characteristic symptoms of DI and are less relevant in the context of this condition. Decreased appetite and headache (Choice B) are nonspecific symptoms that may occur in various conditions. Nausea, vomiting, and muscle weakness (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of DI. Elevated blood pressure and petechiae (Choice D) are not commonly associated with DI; instead, hypotension is more commonly observed due to volume depletion.

4. What assessment data should lead the nurse to suspect that a client has progressed from HIV infection to AIDS?

• A. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes
• B. Presence of low-grade fever and sore throat
• C. Recent history of recurrent pneumonia
• D. CD4 blood cell count of 300

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Recent history of recurrent pneumonia.' Recurrent pneumonia is a hallmark indicator of progression to AIDS in clients with HIV infection. It signifies advanced immunosuppression when the body is unable to fight off infections effectively. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes (Choice A) are more indicative of local infections or inflammation rather than AIDS progression. The presence of a low-grade fever and sore throat (Choice B) may be common in various infections and are not specific to AIDS progression. While a CD4 blood cell count of 300 (Choice D) is below the normal range and indicates immunosuppression, it alone may not be sufficient to suspect progression to AIDS without other supporting indicators like opportunistic infections such as recurrent pneumonia.

5. A nurse working on an endocrine unit should see which client first?

• A. An adolescent male with diabetes who is arguing about his insulin dose.
• B. An older client with Addison’s disease whose current blood sugar level is 62mg/dl (3.44 mmol/l).
• C. An adult with a blood sugar of 384mg/dl (21.31mmol/l) and urine output of 350 ml in the last hour.
• D. A client taking corticosteroids who has become disoriented in the last two hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with Addison’s disease and a blood sugar level of 62mg/dl (3.44 mmol/l) is experiencing hypoglycemia, which can progress to adrenal crisis. This situation requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D, although concerning, do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the client with Addison’s disease and hypoglycemia. The adolescent arguing about his insulin dose can be addressed after stabilizing the client with Addison’s disease. The adult with high blood sugar and increased urine output may have hyperglycemia but is not in immediate danger. The client taking corticosteroids who is disoriented needs evaluation but is not in an acute life-threatening condition as the client with hypoglycemia.

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