HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam
1. After a motor vehicle collision, a client is admitted to the medical unit with acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis). Which prescription should the nurse implement?
- A. Determine serum glucose levels
- B. Withhold potassium additives to IV fluids
- C. Give IV corticosteroid replacement
- D. Prepare to initiate IV vasopressors
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis) following a motor vehicle collision, the priority intervention is to administer IV corticosteroid replacement. This is crucial to manage the crisis by replacing the deficient cortisol. Determining serum glucose levels (Choice A) may be important but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Withholding potassium additives to IV fluids (Choice B) is not indicated and may exacerbate electrolyte imbalances. Initiating IV vasopressors (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for acute adrenal insufficiency and should be reserved for managing hypotension that is unresponsive to corticosteroid therapy.
2. The client who is to avoid any weight-bearing on the left leg is using a 3-point crutch gait for ambulation. What is the best action for the nurse to initiate?
- A. Encourage continued use of the 3-point crutch gait by the client
- B. Encourage the client to use a wheelchair for mobility
- C. Instruct the client in the use of a 4-point crutch gait
- D. Instruct the client in the use of a 2-point crutch gait
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client needs to avoid weight-bearing on the left leg. A 4-point crutch gait involves using both crutches and both legs, making it more appropriate for weight-bearing restrictions. Encouraging the use of a 3-point gait (choice A) would not provide adequate support for the client's condition. While using a wheelchair (choice B) could be an option, instructing the client in a 4-point crutch gait would promote mobility while adhering to weight-bearing restrictions. A 2-point crutch gait (choice D) involves using both crutches and one leg, which is not suitable for avoiding weight-bearing on the left leg.
3. In what order should the nurse perform the steps of a surgical hand scrub prior to entering the operating room?
- A. Rinse from the fingertips to the elbow
- B. Scrape under the nails with a nail pick
- C. Use a soapy brush to scrub the hands
- D. Cleanse the arm with a lathered brush
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct order for performing a surgical hand scrub is to first scrape under the nails with a nail pick, then scrub the hands using a soapy brush, cleanse the arms, and finally rinse. This sequence ensures thorough cleaning and minimizes the risk of contamination. Choice A is incorrect because rinsing should be the final step, not the first. Choice C is incorrect as scrubbing the hands comes after scraping under the nails. Choice D is incorrect as cleansing the arms should follow hand scrubbing, not precede it.
4. The healthcare provider is completing a head-to-toe assessment for a client admitted for observation after falling out of a tree. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?
- A. Sluggish pupillary response to light
- B. Clear fluid leaking from the nose
- C. Complaint of severe headache
- D. Periorbital ecchymosis of the right eye
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clear fluid leaking from the nose is concerning for cerebrospinal fluid leakage, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Sluggish pupillary response to light may indicate neurological issues but is not as urgent as CSF leakage. Complaint of severe headache is important but not as critical as the possibility of CSF leakage. Periorbital ecchymosis of the right eye could be indicative of trauma but does not pose an immediate threat to the patient's life.
5. An adult male is admitted to the psychiatric unit from the emergency department because he is in the manic disorder. He has lost 10 pounds in the last two weeks and has not bathed in a week because he has been “trying to start a new business” and is “too busy to eat.” He is alert and oriented to time, place and person, but not situation. Which nursing diagnosis has the greatest priority?
- A. Self-care deficit
- B. Disturbed sleep pattern
- C. Disturbed thought processes
- D. Imbalanced nutrition
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Imbalanced nutrition is the priority in this case as the patient has lost a significant amount of weight and is neglecting self-care, such as bathing and eating properly. The weight loss indicates a serious issue that needs immediate attention to prevent further health complications. While self-care deficit, disturbed sleep pattern, and disturbed thought processes are also concerns for this patient, addressing the imbalanced nutrition takes precedence due to the potential impact on the patient's physical health. Neglecting proper nutrition can lead to serious complications, so it is crucial to address this issue first.
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