a client who sustained a pellet gun injury with a resulting comminuted skull fracture is admitted overnight for observation which assessment finding o
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HESI CAT Exam Quizlet

1. A client who sustained a pellet gun injury with a resulting comminuted skull fracture is admitted overnight for observation. Which assessment finding obtained two hours after admission necessitates immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a pellet gun injury and a comminuted skull fracture, repeatedly falling asleep while talking with the nurse is a concerning sign. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or a deteriorating condition, requiring immediate intervention. The other options, such as a throbbing headache (choice A), slow trickle of bright red blood at the entry site (choice C), or reddened and edematous entry site (choice D), while important to monitor, do not directly indicate a need for immediate intervention as much as the client falling asleep repeatedly while talking does.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for antibiotic treatment of a leg ulcer. Which signs and symptoms, indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs and symptoms indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) include increased heart rate, visual disturbances, and decreased mentation. These symptoms are often associated with HHNS due to the high blood glucose levels. Uremic frost, a sign of advanced kidney disease, is not typically associated with HHNS. Therefore, choices B and D are incorrect. However, choice C, 'Presence of uremic frost,' is incorrect as it is not typically associated with HHNS.

3. An adult suffered burns to the face and chest resulting from a grease fire. On admission, the client was intubated, and a 2-liter bolus of normal saline was administered IV. Currently, the normal saline is infusing at 250 ml/hour. The client’s heart rate is 120 beats/minute, blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, respirations are 12 breaths/minute over the ventilated 12 breaths for a total of 24 breaths/minute, and the central venous pressure (CVP) is 4 mm H2O. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to infuse an additional bolus of normal saline. The client's presentation with a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, hypotensive blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg, and low CVP of 4 mm H2O indicates hypovolemic shock. Administering more normal saline can help in restoring intravascular volume and improving perfusion. Increasing the rate of normal saline infusion (Choice A) is not the best choice as it may lead to fluid overload. Lowering the head of the bed to a recumbent position (Choice C) could worsen hypotension by reducing venous return. Bringing a tracheostomy tray to the bedside (Choice D) is not a priority at this time as the client is already intubated, and the immediate concern is addressing the hypovolemia.

4. What information should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan of a client with low back pain who is taking cyclobenzaprine to control muscle spasms?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use cold and allergy medications only as directed by a healthcare provider.' It is essential to inform the client not to self-medicate with cold and allergy medications or make changes without consulting a healthcare provider to prevent potential drug interactions or adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because cyclobenzaprine can be taken with or without food, so there is no specific requirement to take it on an empty stomach. Choice B is incorrect because using heat or ice on injured muscles while taking cyclobenzaprine is generally safe and can help with symptom management. Choice D is also incorrect because discontinuing nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider, but it is not a direct concern related to taking cyclobenzaprine for muscle spasms.

5. In what sequence should the nurse prepare the dose of insulin for a client whose finger stick glucose is 210 mg/dl and is receiving a sliding scale dose of short-acting insulin before breakfast?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct sequence for preparing a dose of insulin involves ensuring proper aseptic technique. First, clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab to prevent contamination. Second, withdraw the correct dose of insulin to be administered. Lastly, inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial to maintain proper pressure for withdrawing the medication. This sequence ensures the medication is prepared safely and accurately. Choice A is correct as it follows this sequence. Choices B, C, and D present incorrect sequences that may compromise patient safety by not following the correct aseptic technique. Choice B injects air into the vial before withdrawing insulin, which is incorrect. Choice C reverses the order of withdrawing insulin and injecting air. Choice D withdraws the insulin before injecting air, which can affect the pressure inside the vial and lead to inaccurate dosing.

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