HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam
1. An adult male who admits to abusing IV drugs obtains the results of HIV testing. When informed that the results are positive, he states that he does not want his wife to know. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Tell the client he is required by law to inform his sexual partners of his HIV status
- B. Counsel the client about the importance of notifying his sexual partner
- C. Inform the wife of her health risk related to her husband's HIV results
- D. Report the client's status as a sexually transmitted case to the health department
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should counsel the client on the importance of notifying partners about HIV status while respecting confidentiality. Mandatory partner notification laws vary by jurisdiction, so option A cannot be universally applied. Breaching patient confidentiality, as suggested in option C, is unethical. Reporting the client's status to the health department without consent, as in option D, is not appropriate as HIV status is confidential information and is not automatically reported as a sexually transmitted case.
2. A mother brings her child, who has a history of asthma, to the emergency room. The child is wheezing and speaking one word between each breath. The child is anxious, tachycardic, and has labored respirations. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Type of inhaler the child typically uses on a regular basis
- B. Frequency of rescue inhaler use during the week
- C. Last dose and type of rescue inhaler used by the child
- D. Type of allergen exposure or trigger for the current episode
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because knowing the last dose and type of rescue inhaler used helps assess if the child has received adequate treatment and if further intervention is needed. This information is crucial in managing an acute asthma exacerbation. Choice A, the type of inhaler the child typically uses, is less critical during an emergency. Choice B, the frequency of rescue inhaler use during the week, is important for general asthma management but does not provide immediate guidance in the acute situation. Choice D, the type of allergen exposure or trigger, is more relevant for preventive strategies and does not directly impact the immediate treatment of the child's acute asthma attack.
3. A school nurse is called to the soccer field because a child has a nosebleed (epistaxis). In what position should the nurse place the child?
- A. Sitting up and leaning forward
- B. Reclining with head elevated
- C. Sitting up with head tilted back
- D. Lying flat on the back
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct position for a child with a nosebleed (epistaxis) is sitting up and leaning forward. This position helps prevent blood from flowing into the throat and causing choking. Choice B, reclining with the head elevated, and choice D, lying flat on the back, are incorrect as they can cause blood to flow backward into the throat. Choice C, sitting up with the head tilted back, is also incorrect as it can lead to blood flowing down the back of the throat and potentially into the airway.
4. After the diagnosis and initial treatment of a 3-year-old with Cystic fibrosis, the nurse provides home care instructions to the mother. Which statement by the child's mother indicates that she understands home care treatment to promote pulmonary functions?
- A. Chest physiotherapy should be performed twice a day before a meal
- B. Energy should be conserved by scheduling minimally strenuous activities
- C. Administer a cough suppressant every 8 hours
- D. Maintain supplemental oxygen at 4 to 6 L/minute
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chest physiotherapy is essential for maintaining pulmonary function in cystic fibrosis. It should be performed regularly, often twice daily, to clear mucus from the lungs. Choice B is incorrect because conserving energy does not directly promote pulmonary function. Choice C is incorrect as cough suppressants are not typically used to promote pulmonary function in cystic fibrosis. Choice D is incorrect as maintaining supplemental oxygen at 4 to 6 L/minute is not a standard home care treatment for promoting pulmonary functions in cystic fibrosis.
5. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?
- A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
- B. To promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration
- C. To promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance
- D. To decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is done to reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, aiding in lung expansion and oxygenation. This position helps improve respiratory mechanics by allowing the diaphragm to move more effectively. Choice B is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed does not directly promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration. Choice C is incorrect because although elevating the head of the bed can assist with airway clearance, its primary purpose in ARDS is to decrease pressure on the diaphragm. Choice D is incorrect because reducing pressure on the medullary center is not the main goal of elevating the head of the bed; the focus is on enhancing lung function and oxygen exchange.
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