HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Quizlet
1. A client who had an intraosseous (IO) cannula placed by the healthcare provider for emergent fluid resuscitation is complaining of severe pain and numbness below the IO site. The skin around the site is pale and edematous. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Discontinue the IO infusion
- B. Administer an analgesic via the IO site
- C. Elevate the extremity with the IO site
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to discontinue the IO infusion. The client's symptoms of severe pain, numbness, pale skin, and edema below the IO site suggest a complication, such as extravasation or compartment syndrome. By discontinuing the infusion, further harm can be prevented. Administering an analgesic via the IO site or elevating the extremity would not address the underlying issue and could potentially worsen the condition. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after stopping the infusion to seek further guidance or intervention.
2. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse’s decision to hold the client’s scheduled antihypertensive medication?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has led to diuresis and lowered the blood pressure.
- B. The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness.
- C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.
- D. The synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client experiences syncope due to a significant drop in blood pressure after receiving multiple antihypertensive medications, the additive effect of these medications can cause the blood pressure to drop excessively. This additive effect can lead to hypotension, which is why the nurse decided to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication. Choices A, B, and D provide incorrect rationales. Choice A mentions diuresis, which is not directly related to the drop in blood pressure due to additive medication effects. Choice B refers to an antagonistic interaction reducing effectiveness, which is not applicable in this scenario. Choice D talks about a synergistic effect leading to drug toxicity, which is not the cause of the sudden drop in blood pressure observed in the client.
3. The nurse notes that a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and non-communicative during the past two weeks. Which intervention is most important to include in the updated plan of care for this client?
- A. Encourage the client's family to visit more often
- B. Schedule a daily conference with the social worker
- C. Encourage the client to participate in group activities
- D. Engage the client in a non-threatening conversation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Engaging the client in a non-threatening conversation is crucial as it can help build trust and provide support, addressing the client's withdrawal. This intervention focuses on establishing a therapeutic relationship and giving the client an opportunity to express their feelings. Choices A, B, and C do not directly target the client's need for communication and may not address the underlying issues contributing to her withdrawal. Encouraging the client's family to visit more often (Choice A) may add pressure or discomfort to the client. Scheduling a daily conference with the social worker (Choice B) may not address the client's immediate need for communication. Encouraging the client to participate in group activities (Choice C) may be overwhelming for the client and not address her withdrawal directly.
4. A woman at 24-weeks gestation who has fever, body aches, and has been coughing for the last 5 days is sent to the hospital with admission prescriptions for H1N1 influenza. Which action has the highest priority?
- A. Administer Ringer's Lactate IV 125ml/8 hours
- B. Obtain specimens for cultures
- C. Assign a private room
- D. Monitor vital signs q4 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assigning a private room has the highest priority in this scenario. It helps prevent the spread of H1N1 influenza to other patients and protects both the patient and others from potential infection. Obtaining specimens for cultures and monitoring vital signs are important but do not address the immediate need to prevent the spread of the virus. Administering Ringer's Lactate IV is not the priority in this case as it does not directly address the infectious nature of the condition.
5. Which assessment finding is most indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client’s right leg?
- A. Dorsiflexes the right foot and left foot on command
- B. A 3 by 5 cm ecchymosis area on the right calf
- C. Right calf is 3 cm larger in circumference than the left calf
- D. Bilateral lower extremities have 3+ pitting edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a significant difference in calf circumference between the legs is a classic sign of DVT. This is due to the obstruction of blood flow in the deep veins of the leg, leading to swelling in the affected limb. Choices A, B, and D are not typical findings of DVT. Choice A describes a neurological response, choice B indicates a bruise on the right calf, and choice D describes pitting edema in both lower extremities, which are not specific signs of DVT.
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