Nursing Elites

1. A heparin infusion is prescribed for a client who weighs 220 pounds. After administering a bolus dose of 80 units/kg, the nurse calculates the infusion rate for the heparin sodium at 18 units/kg/hour. The available solution is Heparin Sodium 25,000 units in 5% Dextrose Injection 250 ml. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?

• A. 18
• B. 27
• C. 36
• D. 45

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, first, find the total dose required per hour, which is the patient's weight (220 pounds) multiplied by the prescribed rate (18 units/kg/hour). This equals 3960 units/hour. Next, determine how many ml of the solution contain 25,000 units; this is 250 ml. Divide the total dose required per hour (3960 units) by the units per ml (25,000 units/250 ml) to find how many ml are needed per hour. This results in 27 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 27 ml/hour. Choice A (18) is incorrect as it does not account for the concentration of the heparin solution. Choices C (36) and D (45) are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculations based on the patient's weight and the heparin concentration in the solution.

2. Which action should the school nurse take first when conducting a screening for scoliosis?

• A. Compare dorsal trunk measurements
• B. Have the individual extend arms over the head for visualization
• C. Inspect for symmetrical shoulder height
• D. Observe weight-bearing on each leg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inspecting for symmetrical shoulder height is a crucial initial step in screening for scoliosis. Asymmetry in shoulder height can indicate the presence of spinal curvature, which is a key indicator of scoliosis. This assessment is prioritized as it provides a visual clue to potential spinal abnormalities. Choices A, B, and D are not the first steps in scoliosis screening. Choice A involves a more detailed measurement that is not the primary visual indicator for scoliosis; choice B is not a primary indicator of scoliosis but can be used for further examination, and choice D is not directly related to identifying spinal curvature.

3. When conducting diet teaching for a client who is on a postoperative full liquid diet, which foods should the nurse encourage the client to eat?

• A. Vanilla frozen yogurt
• B. Vegetable juice
• C. Clear beef broth
• D. Canned fruit cocktail

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer should be provided as choice E: Vanilla frozen yogurt. For a postoperative full liquid diet, the nurse should encourage the client to eat foods that are fully liquid and easy to digest. Vanilla frozen yogurt is a suitable choice as it provides calories and nutrients while being in a liquid form. Creamy peanut butter, vegetable juice, and canned fruit cocktail are not appropriate for a full liquid diet as they are not fully liquid and may not be easy to digest. Creamy peanut butter is solid, vegetable juice is not fully liquid, and canned fruit cocktail contains solid pieces.

4. The urinary drainage of a client with continuous bladder irrigation is becoming increasingly red. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Increase the irrigation rate
• B. Lower the head of the bed
• C. Milk the catheter tubing
• D. Evaluate for fluid overload

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increasing the irrigation rate can help clear any blood clots and reduce the redness in the urinary drainage. This intervention aims to improve the flushing of the bladder and potentially resolve the issue. Lowering the head of the bed would not directly address the red urinary drainage. Milking the catheter tubing is not recommended as it can cause trauma to the catheter or bladder, leading to further complications. While evaluating for fluid overload is an important nursing consideration, it does not directly address the immediate concern of redness in the urinary drainage, which requires a focused intervention to clear any blockages or clots in the system.

5. The healthcare provider changes a client’s medication prescription from IV to PO administration and doubles the dose. The nurse notes in the drug guide that the prescribed medication, when given orally, has a high first-pass effect and reduces bioavailability. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Continue administering the medication via the IV route.
• B. Give half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider.
• C. Administer the medication orally as prescribed.
• D. Consult with the pharmacist regarding the prescription change.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to consult with the pharmacist regarding the change in prescription. With the high first-pass effect of the medication when given orally, it reduces its bioavailability, meaning a dosage adjustment may be necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Continuing to administer the medication via the IV route (choice A) is not appropriate as the prescription has been changed to oral administration. Giving half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider (choice B) is not recommended without proper guidance, which should come from consulting with the pharmacist. Simply administering the medication orally as prescribed (choice C) without addressing the potential issue of reduced bioavailability may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.

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