a heparin infusion is prescribed for a client who weighs 220 pounds after administering a bolus dose of 80 unitskg the nurse calculates the infusion r
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

CAT Exam Practice Test

1. A heparin infusion is prescribed for a client who weighs 220 pounds. After administering a bolus dose of 80 units/kg, the nurse calculates the infusion rate for the heparin sodium at 18 units/kg/hour. The available solution is Heparin Sodium 25,000 units in 5% Dextrose Injection 250 ml. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, first, find the total dose required per hour, which is the patient's weight (220 pounds) multiplied by the prescribed rate (18 units/kg/hour). This equals 3960 units/hour. Next, determine how many ml of the solution contain 25,000 units; this is 250 ml. Divide the total dose required per hour (3960 units) by the units per ml (25,000 units/250 ml) to find how many ml are needed per hour. This results in 27 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 27 ml/hour. Choice A (18) is incorrect as it does not account for the concentration of the heparin solution. Choices C (36) and D (45) are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculations based on the patient's weight and the heparin concentration in the solution.

2. The parents of a 6-year-old child recently diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy tell the nurse that their child wants to continue attending swimming classes. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the parents to allow the child to continue attending swimming lessons with supervision is the most appropriate response. Swimming can be beneficial for the child, providing both exercise and enjoyment. Supervision can help manage any risks associated with swimming. Choice B is incorrect because the child's preference for swimming should be respected, and swimming can still offer socialization opportunities. Choice C is incorrect as it undermines the child's capability to understand the situation. Choice D is less appropriate as it does not address the child's interest in swimming and may limit beneficial physical activity.

3. The nurse identifies the presence of clear fluid on the surgical dressing of a client who just returned to the unit following lumbar spinal surgery. What action should the nurse implement immediately?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement immediately upon identifying clear fluid on the surgical dressing post-lumbar surgery is to test the fluid for glucose. Clear fluid could indicate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage, and testing for glucose can help confirm this. Changing the dressing using a compression bandage (Choice A) without further assessment could lead to complications. Documenting the findings (Choice C) is important but not as immediate as confirming the presence of CSF. Marking the drainage area with a pen and monitoring (Choice D) does not address the need for immediate confirmation of CSF leakage.

4. A client presents to the healthcare provider with fatigue, poor appetite, general malaise, and vague joint pain that improves mid-morning. The client has been using over-the-counter ibuprofen for several months. The healthcare provider makes an initial diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which laboratory test should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sedimentation rate. Sedimentation rate, Anti–CCP antibodies, and C-reactive protein are commonly used laboratory tests to indicate inflammation and help diagnose rheumatoid arthritis. An elevated sedimentation rate is a nonspecific indicator of inflammation in the body, which is often seen in RA. White blood cell count is not specific for RA and is not typically significant in the diagnosis. Anti–CCP antibodies are specific to RA and are useful in confirming the diagnosis. Activated Clotting Time is not relevant to the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis as it is not specific to this condition.

5. Following a gunshot wound, an adult client has a hemoglobin level of 4 grams/dl (40 mmol/L SI). The nurse prepares to administer a unit of blood for an emergency transfusion. The client has AB negative blood type and the blood bank sends a unit of type A Rh negative, reporting that there is not type AB negative blood currently available. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where AB negative blood is unavailable, type A negative blood can be transfused to a patient with AB negative blood type. Type A negative blood is compatible with AB negative blood, making it a suitable option until the correct blood type becomes available. Transfusion of Type A negative blood is crucial to address the severe anemia promptly. Rechecking the client’s hemoglobin, blood type, and Rh factor (Choice B) may delay necessary treatment. Administering normal saline solution (Choice C) is not a substitute for blood transfusion in cases of severe anemia. Obtaining additional consent for the administration of type A negative blood (Choice D) is unnecessary as the situation is emergent and the blood type is compatible.

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