Nursing Elites

1. In what order should the unit manager implement interventions to address the UAP’s behavior after they leave the unit without notifying the staff?

• A. Note date and time of the behavior.
• B. Discuss the issue privately with the UAP.
• C. Plan for scheduled break times.
• D. Evaluate the UAP for signs of improvement.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order for the unit manager to implement interventions to address the UAP's behavior is to first note the date and time of the behavior. Proper documentation is crucial as it provides a factual record of the incident. This documentation can be used to address the behavior effectively and to track any patterns or improvements in the future. Discussing the issue with the UAP privately (choice B) should come after documenting the behavior. Planning for scheduled break times (choice C) is unrelated to the situation described and does not address the UAP's behavior of leaving without notifying the staff. Evaluating the UAP for signs of improvement (choice D) can only be done effectively after the behavior has been addressed and interventions have been implemented.

2. A client who had an intraosseous (IO) cannula placed by the healthcare provider for emergent fluid resuscitation is complaining of severe pain and numbness below the IO site. The skin around the site is pale and edematous. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Discontinue the IO infusion
• B. Administer an analgesic via the IO site
• C. Elevate the extremity with the IO site
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to discontinue the IO infusion. The client's symptoms of severe pain, numbness, pale skin, and edema below the IO site suggest a complication, such as extravasation or compartment syndrome. By discontinuing the infusion, further harm can be prevented. Administering an analgesic via the IO site or elevating the extremity would not address the underlying issue and could potentially worsen the condition. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after stopping the infusion to seek further guidance or intervention.

3. A new mother asks the nurse if the newborn infant has an infection because the healthcare provider prescribed a blood test called the TORCH screen test. Which response should the nurse offer to the mother's inquiry?

• A. Rising titers identify the etiology of certain neuro-sensory birth defects
• B. The screen determines the risk for inherited anomalies in the newborn
• C. The test identifies the correct antibiotic to give the newborn for an infection
• D. Exposure to infections that can cross the placenta cause a positive antibody titer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The TORCH screen test is used to detect infections that can affect the newborn by showing if there was exposure to these infections. Choice A is incorrect because the TORCH screen test is not specifically for identifying the etiology of neuro-sensory birth defects. Choice B is incorrect because the test does not determine the risk for inherited anomalies. Choice C is incorrect because the test is not used to identify the correct antibiotic for an infection, but rather to detect infections that may have affected the newborn.

4. A male client with schizophrenia is jerking his neck and smacking his lips. Which finding indicates to the nurse that he is experiencing an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic agents?

• A. Cramping muscular pain
• B. Worming movements of the tongue
• C. Decreased tendon reflexes
• D. Dry oral mucous membranes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Worming movements of the tongue. Worming movements of the tongue, known as tardive dyskinesia, are an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities. Cramping muscular pain (Choice A) is more indicative of dystonia, an extrapyramidal side effect that can be treated effectively with antiparkinsonian medications. Decreased tendon reflexes (Choice C) are not typically associated with irreversible side effects of antipsychotic agents. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice D) are not specific to irreversible side effects of antipsychotic medications.

5. Two weeks following a Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy), a client develops nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after every meal. When the nurse develops a teaching plan for this client, which expected outcome statement is the most relevant?

• A. Describes a schedule for antacid use in combination with other prescribed medications
• B. Selects a pattern of small meals interspersed with fluid intake
• C. Commits to engaging in a variety of stress reduction techniques
• D. Expresses a commitment to decrease nicotine intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms described are indicative of dumping syndrome, a common complication following a Billroth II procedure. Dumping syndrome presents with symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after meals. To manage these symptoms effectively, the client should opt for small, frequent meals and avoid consuming fluids along with meals. Choice A is inaccurate because antacid use does not directly address the symptoms of dumping syndrome. Choice C is irrelevant as stress reduction techniques are not the primary intervention for dumping syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the symptoms experienced by the client, making it an inappropriate choice.

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