Nursing Elites

1. In what order should the unit manager implement interventions to address the UAP’s behavior after they leave the unit without notifying the staff?

• A. Note date and time of the behavior.
• B. Discuss the issue privately with the UAP.
• C. Plan for scheduled break times.
• D. Evaluate the UAP for signs of improvement.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order for the unit manager to implement interventions to address the UAP's behavior is to first note the date and time of the behavior. Proper documentation is crucial as it provides a factual record of the incident. This documentation can be used to address the behavior effectively and to track any patterns or improvements in the future. Discussing the issue with the UAP privately (choice B) should come after documenting the behavior. Planning for scheduled break times (choice C) is unrelated to the situation described and does not address the UAP's behavior of leaving without notifying the staff. Evaluating the UAP for signs of improvement (choice D) can only be done effectively after the behavior has been addressed and interventions have been implemented.

2. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?

• A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
• B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
• C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
• D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.

3. A young adult woman visits the clinic and learns that she is positive for BRCA1 gene mutation and asks the nurse what to expect next. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Explain that counseling will be provided to give her information about her cancer risk.
• B. Gather additional information about the client’s family history for all types of cancer.
• C. Offer assurance that there are a variety of effective treatments for breast cancer.
• D. Provide information about survival rates for women who have this genetic mutation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because counseling will help the woman understand her risk and options for surveillance or preventive measures. At this point, it is crucial to address the woman's immediate concerns related to the BRCA1 gene mutation. Choice B is incorrect as the focus should be on the woman's individual risk due to the specific gene mutation she carries. Choice C is not the priority as treatment options come after assessing the risk and deciding on surveillance or preventive measures. Choice D is incorrect because discussing survival rates is not the immediate need for someone who has just received information about having a genetic mutation.

4. The nurse is assigned to care for four surgical clients. After receiving report, which client should the nurse see first?

• A. An older client receiving packed RBCs on the third day postoperatively for colon resection
• B. An older client with continuous bladder irrigation who is 2 days postoperatively for bladder surgery
• C. An adult one day postoperatively from laparoscopic cholecystectomy requesting pain medication
• D. An adult in Buck’s traction, scheduled for hip arthroplasty within the next 12 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client with continuous bladder irrigation post-bladder surgery is at risk for complications like infection or bleeding. This client requires immediate attention to assess for any signs of complications such as urinary retention, hemorrhage, or infection. Choices A, C, and D have less urgent needs compared to a client with continuous bladder irrigation, which requires priority assessment.

5. A client is admitted with pyelonephritis, and cultures reveal an Escherichia coli infection. The client is allergic to penicillins, and the healthcare provider prescribed vancomycin IV. The nurse should plan to carefully monitor the client for which finding during IV administration?

• A. Tissue sloughing upon extravasation
• B. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate
• C. Tinnitus and vertigo
• D. Erythema of the face, neck, and chest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tinnitus and vertigo. Vancomycin can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, leading to symptoms like tinnitus and vertigo. Monitoring for these adverse effects is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tissue sloughing, elevated blood pressure and heart rate, and erythema of the face, neck, and chest are not typically associated with vancomycin administration. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for signs of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity such as tinnitus and vertigo.

Similar Questions