Nursing Elites

1. In what order should the unit manager implement interventions to address the UAP’s behavior after they leave the unit without notifying the staff?

• A. Note date and time of the behavior.
• B. Discuss the issue privately with the UAP.
• C. Plan for scheduled break times.
• D. Evaluate the UAP for signs of improvement.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order for the unit manager to implement interventions to address the UAP's behavior is to first note the date and time of the behavior. Proper documentation is crucial as it provides a factual record of the incident. This documentation can be used to address the behavior effectively and to track any patterns or improvements in the future. Discussing the issue with the UAP privately (choice B) should come after documenting the behavior. Planning for scheduled break times (choice C) is unrelated to the situation described and does not address the UAP's behavior of leaving without notifying the staff. Evaluating the UAP for signs of improvement (choice D) can only be done effectively after the behavior has been addressed and interventions have been implemented.

2. During an admission assessment on an HIV positive client diagnosed with Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP), which symptoms should the nurse carefully observe the client for?

• A. Weight loss exceeding 10 percent of baseline body weight
• B. Altered mental status and tachypnea
• C. Creamy white patches in the oral cavity
• D. Normal ABGs with wet lung sounds in all lung fields

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Altered mental status and tachypnea. These symptoms are indicative of PCP and severe HIV progression. Weight loss exceeding 10 percent of baseline body weight (choice A) may be seen in HIV/AIDS but is not specific to PCP. Creamy white patches in the oral cavity (choice C) are characteristic of oral thrush, which is more commonly associated with Candida infections in HIV patients. Normal ABGs with wet lung sounds in all lung fields (choice D) would not be expected with PCP, as it typically presents with hypoxemia and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest imaging.

3. To prevent aspiration in a client on mechanical ventilation receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Verify the feeding tube position with a daily chest x-ray
• B. Maintain head of bed elevated while enteral feeding is infusing
• C. Check feeding tube placement with air bolus prior to use
• D. Aspirate stomach contents every 4 hours to assess residuals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important intervention to prevent aspiration in a client receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube while on mechanical ventilation is to maintain the head of the bed elevated while the feeding is infusing. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Options A, C, and D are not as crucial as maintaining proper positioning to prevent aspiration. Verifying tube position with a daily chest x-ray is important but not the most crucial. Checking tube placement with an air bolus and aspirating stomach contents are important procedures but do not directly address the prevention of aspiration during enteral feedings.

4. What assessment data should lead the nurse to suspect that a client has progressed from HIV infection to AIDS?

• A. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes
• B. Presence of low-grade fever and sore throat
• C. Recent history of recurrent pneumonia
• D. CD4 blood cell count of 300

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Recent history of recurrent pneumonia.' Recurrent pneumonia is a hallmark indicator of progression to AIDS in clients with HIV infection. It signifies advanced immunosuppression when the body is unable to fight off infections effectively. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes (Choice A) are more indicative of local infections or inflammation rather than AIDS progression. The presence of a low-grade fever and sore throat (Choice B) may be common in various infections and are not specific to AIDS progression. While a CD4 blood cell count of 300 (Choice D) is below the normal range and indicates immunosuppression, it alone may not be sufficient to suspect progression to AIDS without other supporting indicators like opportunistic infections such as recurrent pneumonia.

5. The nurse is preparing to send a client to the cardiac catheterization lab for an angioplasty. Which client report is most important for the nurse to explore further prior to the start of the procedure?

• A. Verbalizes a fear of being in a confined space.
• B. Drank a glass of water in the past 2 hours.
• C. Reports left chest wall pain prior to admission.
• D. Experiences facial swelling after eating crab

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Left chest wall pain could indicate ongoing cardiac issues or instability, which needs to be assessed before proceeding with the procedure. This pain could be related to the heart and may suggest a potential risk during the angioplasty. Options A, B, and D do not directly relate to cardiac complications during the procedure, making them less urgent for immediate assessment. Fear of confined spaces, drinking water, and facial swelling after eating crab are not immediate risks to the client's safety in the context of a cardiac catheterization procedure.

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