Nursing Elites

1. In what order should the unit manager implement interventions to address the UAP’s behavior after they leave the unit without notifying the staff?

• A. Note date and time of the behavior.
• B. Discuss the issue privately with the UAP.
• C. Plan for scheduled break times.
• D. Evaluate the UAP for signs of improvement.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order for the unit manager to implement interventions to address the UAP's behavior is to first note the date and time of the behavior. Proper documentation is crucial as it provides a factual record of the incident. This documentation can be used to address the behavior effectively and to track any patterns or improvements in the future. Discussing the issue with the UAP privately (choice B) should come after documenting the behavior. Planning for scheduled break times (choice C) is unrelated to the situation described and does not address the UAP's behavior of leaving without notifying the staff. Evaluating the UAP for signs of improvement (choice D) can only be done effectively after the behavior has been addressed and interventions have been implemented.

2. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital. The client is experiencing difficulty breathing and is very anxious. The nurse notes that the client’s oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position
• B. Administer supplemental oxygen
• C. Perform a thorough respiratory assessment
• D. Start an IV infusion of normal saline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering supplemental oxygen is the first priority to address low oxygen saturation and ease breathing. In a client with COPD experiencing difficulty breathing and anxiety with oxygen saturation at 88%, providing supplemental oxygen takes precedence over other actions. Placing the client in a high Fowler’s position may help with breathing but does not address the immediate need for increased oxygenation. Performing a thorough respiratory assessment is important but should come after stabilizing the client's oxygen levels. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline is not the priority in this situation and does not directly address the client's respiratory distress.

3. A 60-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus tells the nurse that he is going to join a gym and start working out. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Recent serum cholesterol levels
• B. Presence of calf pain during exercise
• C. Average weight gain or loss in the last year
• D. Exercise tolerance test with EKG results

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to obtain in this scenario is the presence of calf pain during exercise. Calf pain during exercise could indicate peripheral vascular issues, such as peripheral artery disease, which is crucial to address before starting an exercise program. High cholesterol levels (choice A) may be important but are not as immediately relevant as assessing for peripheral vascular issues. Average weight gain or loss (choice C) may provide some insight into the patient's overall health status but is not as critical as assessing for potential vascular complications. An exercise tolerance test with EKG results (choice D) may be valuable in assessing cardiovascular fitness but is not as crucial as evaluating for peripheral vascular issues given the patient's symptoms.

4. What action should the nurse implement for a female client with cancer who has a good appetite but experiences nausea whenever she smells food cooking?

• A. Encourage family members to cook meals outdoors and bring the cooked food inside
• B. Advise the client to replace cooked foods with a variety of different nutritional supplements
• C. Assess the client’s mucus membranes and report the findings to the healthcare provider
• D. Instruct the client to take an antiemetic before every meal to prevent excessive vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to encourage family members to cook meals outdoors and bring the cooked food inside. This strategy can help reduce the smell of cooking food and potentially alleviate the client's nausea triggered by food smells. Assessing the client's mucus membranes (choice C) is not directly related to the client's symptom of nausea triggered by food smells. Instructing the client to take an antiemetic before every meal (choice D) may not address the root cause of the issue, which is the smell of cooking food. Advising the client to replace cooked foods with nutritional supplements (choice B) does not address the immediate problem of food odors triggering nausea.

5. When administering ceftriaxone sodium intravenously to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Headache
• B. Pruritus
• C. Nausea
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy breathing sound that can indicate a serious condition like airway obstruction or a severe allergic reaction, necessitating immediate intervention to maintain the client's airway and prevent further complications. While headache, pruritus, and nausea are important to assess and manage, they are not as immediately life-threatening as stridor, which requires prompt attention to prevent respiratory compromise.

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