Nursing Elites

1. In what order should the unit manager implement interventions to address the UAP’s behavior after they leave the unit without notifying the staff?

• A. Note date and time of the behavior.
• B. Discuss the issue privately with the UAP.
• C. Plan for scheduled break times.
• D. Evaluate the UAP for signs of improvement.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order for the unit manager to implement interventions to address the UAP's behavior is to first note the date and time of the behavior. Proper documentation is crucial as it provides a factual record of the incident. This documentation can be used to address the behavior effectively and to track any patterns or improvements in the future. Discussing the issue with the UAP privately (choice B) should come after documenting the behavior. Planning for scheduled break times (choice C) is unrelated to the situation described and does not address the UAP's behavior of leaving without notifying the staff. Evaluating the UAP for signs of improvement (choice D) can only be done effectively after the behavior has been addressed and interventions have been implemented.

2. The nurse working on a mental health unit is prioritizing nursing care activities due to a staffing shortage. One practical nurse (PN) is on the unit with the nurse, and another RN is expected to arrive within two hours. Clients need to be awakened, and morning medications need to be prepared. Which plan is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Wake all the clients and instruct them to go to the dining area for medication administration
• B. Explain to the clients that it will be necessary to cooperate until another RN arrives
• C. Ask the PN to administer medications as clients are awakened so both nurses are available
• D. Allow the clients to sleep until a third staff person can assist with unit activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best plan for the nurse to implement is to ask the PN to administer medications as clients are awakened. This approach ensures that medication administration and client care are efficiently managed despite the staffing shortage. Option A is incorrect as it may disrupt the workflow and create unnecessary chaos. Option B is not the best choice as it does not address the immediate need for medication administration. Option D is not ideal as it delays client care until additional staff arrive, potentially compromising patient safety and timely medication administration.

3. A male client is returned to the surgical unit following a left nephrectomy and is medicated with morphine. His dressing has a small amount of bloody drainage, and a Jackson-Pratt bulb surgical drainage device is in place. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Monitor urine output hourly
• B. Assess for back muscle aches
• C. Record drainage from the drain
• D. Obtain body weight daily

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care following a left nephrectomy with a Jackson-Pratt bulb in place is to record drainage from the drain. Monitoring the drainage is crucial as it helps assess for potential complications such as hemorrhage, infection, or other issues related to the surgical site. Assessing urine output is important post-nephrectomy but not as critical as directly monitoring the drainage. Assessing for back muscle aches may be relevant for pain management but not as crucial as monitoring the drainage. Obtaining body weight daily is not directly related to assessing the surgical drain output and is less critical in this scenario.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left forearm. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the fistula is patent?

• A. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand
• B. The left radial pulse is 2+ bounding
• C. Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm
• D. Assessment of a bruit on the left forearm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm is the correct observation indicating that the AV fistula is patent. A thrill is a palpable vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the fistula, indicating the presence of blood flow. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the patency of the fistula. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand may indicate venous hypertension; a bounding radial pulse could suggest increased blood flow through an artery, but it does not confirm fistula patency; assessment of a bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, but it does not confirm patency.

5. A client is admitted for an exacerbation of heart failure (HF) and is being treated with diuretics for fluid volume excess. In planning nursing care, which interventions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)

• A. Encourage oral fluid intake of 3,000 ml/day
• B. Observe for evidence of hypokalemia
• C. Teach the client how to restrict dietary sodium
• D. Monitor PTT, PT, and INR lab values

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct interventions to include when a client with heart failure is being treated with diuretics for fluid volume excess are to observe for evidence of hypokalemia. Diuretics can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring for this electrolyte imbalance is crucial. Encouraging oral fluid intake of 3,000 ml/day may exacerbate fluid volume excess in a client with heart failure. Teaching the client how to restrict dietary sodium is important in managing heart failure, but it is not directly related to the use of diuretics for fluid volume excess. Monitoring PTT, PT, and INR lab values is not typically associated with diuretic therapy for heart failure but rather with anticoagulant therapy.

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