HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam
1. The nurse assesses a 5-year-old child who has been experiencing frequent headaches and vomiting. The nurse notices that the child is lethargic and has a positive Brudzinski sign. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Perform a complete neurological examination
- B. Measure the child’s head circumference
- C. Check the child’s blood glucose level
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. The presence of lethargy and a positive Brudzinski sign in a child experiencing frequent headaches and vomiting may indicate a serious condition like meningitis. Prompt notification of the healthcare provider is crucial for timely evaluation and initiation of appropriate treatment. Choice A is incorrect because while a neurological examination may be necessary, it is not the priority when a potentially serious condition like meningitis is suspected. Choice B is incorrect as measuring the child's head circumference is not the most immediate action to take in this situation. Choice C is also incorrect as checking the child's blood glucose level, although important in some cases, is not the priority when a child presents with symptoms suggestive of meningitis.
2. The nurse is teaching a male adolescent recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) about self-injecting insulin. Which approach is best for the nurse to use to evaluate the effectiveness of the teaching?
- A. Observe him demonstrating the self-injection technique to another diabetic adolescent.
- B. Ask the adolescent to describe his comfort level with injecting himself with insulin.
- C. Review his glycosylated hemoglobin level 3 months after the teaching session.
- D. Have the adolescent list the steps for safe insulin administration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Reviewing the glycosylated hemoglobin level after a few months is the best approach to evaluate the effectiveness of teaching self-injection. This measurement provides an objective indicator of the adolescent's glucose control over time, reflecting the impact of insulin self-administration education. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the long-term impact of the teaching on the adolescent's diabetes management.
3. The nurse is assessing a first-day postpartum client. Which finding is most indicative of a postpartum infection?
- A. Oral temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C)
- B. Blood pressure of 122/74 mmHg
- C. Moderate amount of foul-smelling lochia
- D. White blood count of 19,000/mm³ (19x10^9/L SI units)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A foul-smelling lochia is indicative of a postpartum infection, such as endometritis. Foul-smelling lochia suggests the presence of infection due to the breakdown of tissue by bacteria, leading to the malodor. An oral temperature elevation and an elevated white blood cell count are nonspecific and can be present in various conditions other than postpartum infections, making them less indicative. A blood pressure within normal limits is not typically associated with postpartum infections.
4. A client in the intensive care unit is being mechanically ventilated, has an indwelling urinary catheter in place, and is exhibiting signs of restlessness. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Review the heart rhythm on cardiac monitors
- B. Check urinary catheter for obstruction
- C. Auscultate bilateral breath sounds
- D. Give PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client in the intensive care unit is mechanically ventilated, has an indwelling urinary catheter, and is restless, the priority action is to check the urinary catheter for obstruction. Restlessness in this context could be due to a blocked catheter causing discomfort or urinary retention, which needs immediate attention to prevent complications. Reviewing the heart rhythm on cardiac monitors can be important but is not the priority in this scenario. Auscultating bilateral breath sounds is also important in a ventilated client but addressing the potential immediate issue of a blocked catheter takes precedence. Giving a PRN dose of lorazepam should not be the first action without addressing the underlying cause of restlessness.
5. Which assessment finding is most indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client’s right leg?
- A. Dorsiflexes the right foot and left foot on command
- B. A 3 by 5 cm ecchymosis area on the right calf
- C. Right calf is 3 cm larger in circumference than the left calf
- D. Bilateral lower extremities have 3+ pitting edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a significant difference in calf circumference between the legs is a classic sign of DVT. This is due to the obstruction of blood flow in the deep veins of the leg, leading to swelling in the affected limb. Choices A, B, and D are not typical findings of DVT. Choice A describes a neurological response, choice B indicates a bruise on the right calf, and choice D describes pitting edema in both lower extremities, which are not specific signs of DVT.
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