HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice
1. A 13-year-old girl, diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9, is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of the ketoacidosis?
- A. Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class
- B. Incorrectly drew up and administered too much insulin
- C. Was not hungry, so she skipped eating lunch
- D. Has had a cold and ear infection for the past two days
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Incorrect insulin administration is a common cause of diabetic ketoacidosis. Administering too much insulin can lead to uncontrolled hyperglycemia, where the body starts breaking down fat for energy, resulting in the production of ketones. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to directly cause diabetic ketoacidosis. Eating an extra peanut butter sandwich, skipping lunch, or having a cold and ear infection would not directly lead to the metabolic derangements seen in diabetic ketoacidosis.
2. A client with diabetic peripheral neuropathy has been taking pregabalin for 4 days. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?
- A. Granulating tissue in foot ulcer
- B. Full volume of pedal pulse
- C. Reduced level of pain
- D. Improved visual activity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Reduced level of pain.' Pregabalin is used to manage neuropathic pain, so a reduction in pain indicates the medication's effectiveness in this case. Granulating tissue in a foot ulcer and the full volume of a pedal pulse are not direct indicators of pregabalin's effectiveness in managing neuropathic pain. Improved visual activity is not related to the effects of pregabalin in diabetic peripheral neuropathy.
3. A client with complaints of shortness of breath and abdominal pain 1 week after bariatric surgery is admitted for follow-up evaluation. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Rectal temperature of 101°F
- B. Complaints of left shoulder pain
- C. Blood pressure of 88/50 mmHg
- D. Sustained sinus tachycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A blood pressure of 88/50 mmHg indicates possible hypovolemia or shock, which requires immediate attention. Hypotension can be a sign of decreased perfusion to vital organs, potentially leading to organ failure. The other options, such as a rectal temperature of 101°F, complaints of left shoulder pain, or sustained sinus tachycardia, while important, do not present the same level of immediate threat to the client's well-being as a critically low blood pressure.
4. While caring for a client with bilateral chest tubes, the bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the right chest tube stops. What action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Check the chest tube connections to the water-seal container
- B. Replace the water-seal collection container
- C. Increase the amount of wall suction connected to the right chest tube
- D. Milk the tubing connected to the right chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take when the bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the right chest tube stops is to check the chest tube connections to the water-seal container. This is crucial to ensure there are no disconnections or leaks affecting the bubbling. Replacing the water-seal collection container (choice B) is not necessary unless there is a malfunction; increasing suction (choice C) without assessing the connections can be harmful, and 'milking' the tubing (choice D) is an inappropriate action that can cause damage to the system.
5. The nurse plans to collect a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the adult male client?
- A. Urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours.
- B. Cleanse around the meatus, discard the first portion of voiding, and collect the rest in a sterile bottle.
- C. For the next 24 hours, notify the nurse when the bladder is full, and the nurse will collect catheterized specimens.
- D. Urinate immediately into a urinal, and the lab will collect the specimen every 6 hours for the next 24 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the adult male client to follow when collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test is to urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours. This method ensures proper collection for an accurate creatinine clearance measurement. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different procedure for a clean-catch urine sample, not suitable for creatinine clearance. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests catheterization, which is not typically done for a creatinine clearance test, and it is not necessary for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as it does not follow the standard procedure for a 24-hour urine collection for creatinine clearance; the urine should be collected continuously over 24 hours, not at specified intervals.
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