HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice
1. A 13-year-old girl, diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9, is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of the ketoacidosis?
- A. Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class
- B. Incorrectly drew up and administered too much insulin
- C. Was not hungry, so she skipped eating lunch
- D. Has had a cold and ear infection for the past two days
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Incorrect insulin administration is a common cause of diabetic ketoacidosis. Administering too much insulin can lead to uncontrolled hyperglycemia, where the body starts breaking down fat for energy, resulting in the production of ketones. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to directly cause diabetic ketoacidosis. Eating an extra peanut butter sandwich, skipping lunch, or having a cold and ear infection would not directly lead to the metabolic derangements seen in diabetic ketoacidosis.
2. The nurse is caring for a newborn who arrives in the nursery following a precipitous birth on the way to the hospital. A drug screen of the mother reveals the presence of cocaine metabolites. The infant has a heart rate of 175 beats/minute, cries continuously, is irritable, and is hyperreactive to stimuli. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this infant’s plan of care?
- A. Initiate infant sepsis protocol
- B. Implement seizure precautions
- C. Refer to protective child services
- D. Formula feed every 3 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The infant's symptoms, such as a high heart rate, continuous crying, irritability, and hyperreactivity, suggest possible withdrawal effects due to maternal cocaine use. These symptoms can lead to seizures. Therefore, the priority intervention is to implement seizure precautions to ensure the infant's safety. Initiating the infant sepsis protocol is not indicated based on the symptoms presented. Referring to protective child services is important but not the immediate priority. Formula feeding every 3 hours is a routine care measure but does not address the urgent need to prevent potential seizures.
3. The practical nurse (PN) is assigned to work with three registered nurses (RN) who are caring for neurologically compromised clients. The client with which change in status is best to assign to the PN?
- A. Diabetic ketoacidosis whose Glasgow Coma Scale score changed from 10 to 7
- B. Subdural hematoma whose blood pressure changed from 150/80 mmHg to 170/60 mmHg
- C. Myxedema coma whose blood pressure changed from 80/50 mmHg to 70/40 mmHg
- D. Viral meningitis whose temperature changed from 101° F (38.3 C) to 102° F (38.9C)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because viral meningitis with a slight increase in temperature is less acute and complex compared to the other conditions. This change in temperature does not indicate a critical or urgent situation requiring immediate attention or intervention beyond the scope of a practical nurse. Choices A, B, and C present more significant changes in health status such as a decrease in Glasgow Coma Scale score, an increase in intracranial pressure indicated by blood pressure changes, and a significant drop in blood pressure, respectively. These changes require closer monitoring and intervention by registered nurses due to the higher acuity and complexity of care needed for these conditions.
4. The nurse implements a tertiary prevention program for type 2 diabetes in a rural health clinic. Which outcome indicates that the program was effective?
- A. Clients who developed disease complications promptly received rehabilitation
- B. More than 50% of at-risk clients were diagnosed early in their disease process
- C. Only 30% of clients did not attend self-management education sessions
- D. Average client scores improved on a specific risk factor knowledge test
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in tertiary prevention, the focus is on managing complications and providing rehabilitation. Choice B is more aligned with primary prevention as it focuses on early diagnosis. Choice C's attendance in education sessions is not a direct indicator of managing complications. Choice D's improvement in knowledge does not directly measure the program's effectiveness in managing complications.
5. When entering a client’s room to administer an 0900 IV antibiotic, the nurse finds that the client is engaged in sexual activity with a visitor. Which actions should the nurse implement?
- A. Ignore the behavior and administer the IV antibiotic
- B. Tell the client to stop the inappropriate behavior
- C. Leave the room and close the door quietly
- D. Complete an unusual occurrence report
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this situation is to leave the room and close the door quietly. This response respects the client's privacy, maintains professionalism, and avoids interrupting the client's personal moment. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the behavior is not appropriate and may invade the client's privacy further. Choice B is incorrect as it can embarrass the client and the visitor, breaching their privacy and dignity. Choice D is also incorrect as the immediate priority is to respect the client's privacy and address the situation discreetly.
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