Nursing Elites

1. A 13-year-old girl, diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9, is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of the ketoacidosis?

• A. Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class
• B. Incorrectly drew up and administered too much insulin
• C. Was not hungry, so she skipped eating lunch
• D. Has had a cold and ear infection for the past two days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Incorrect insulin administration is a common cause of diabetic ketoacidosis. Administering too much insulin can lead to uncontrolled hyperglycemia, where the body starts breaking down fat for energy, resulting in the production of ketones. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to directly cause diabetic ketoacidosis. Eating an extra peanut butter sandwich, skipping lunch, or having a cold and ear infection would not directly lead to the metabolic derangements seen in diabetic ketoacidosis.

2. After removing an IV that became infiltrated in the client’s left forearm, which site should the nurse select as a possible site to insert another IV catheter?

• A. Right hand
• B. Right forearm
• C. Left hand
• D. Right subclavian

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Right hand. When an IV becomes infiltrated in the client's left forearm, it is essential to avoid the same side due to the risk of complications. Therefore, the right hand is a suitable alternative site for IV insertion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choosing the right forearm (B) would still be on the same side, which increases the risk of complications. The left hand (C) is not a preferred option immediately after an infiltration in the left forearm. The right subclavian (D) is an invasive site typically reserved for central line placement and not a first-line choice for IV insertion.

3. A client is admitted to a medical unit with the diagnosis of gastritis and chronic heavy alcohol abuse. What should the nurse administer to prevent the development of Wernicke's syndrome?

• A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Famotidine (Pepcid)
• C. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
• D. Atenolol (Tenormin)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thiamine supplementation is critical in preventing Wernicke's syndrome, especially in clients with chronic alcohol use. Wernicke's syndrome is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome. Famotidine is an H2 blocker used to reduce stomach acid production but does not prevent Wernicke's syndrome. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and angina, not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome.

4. What action should the nurse take after a client produces the first of a series of sputum samples for cytology?

• A. Ensure the client remains NPO until all samples are collected
• B. Transport the sputum container to the laboratory in a biohazard bag
• C. Discard the initial sample and document the time it was obtained
• D. Document the time the client last ate or drank on the laboratory slip

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take after a client produces the first of a series of sputum samples for cytology is to transport the sputum container to the laboratory in a biohazard bag. This is important to ensure proper handling and prevent contamination of the sample. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to keep the client NPO until all samples are collected. Choice C is incorrect as the initial sample should not be discarded but rather transported to the laboratory. Choice D is also incorrect as documenting the time the client last ate or drank is not directly relevant to the immediate action needed for the sputum sample.

5. The nurse notes that an older adult client has a moist cough that increases in severity during and after meals. Based on this finding, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to perform deep breathing exercises daily.
• B. Offer the client additional clear fluids frequently.
• C. Collect a sputum specimen immediately.
• D. Request a consultation to confirm dysphagia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The moist cough that worsens during and after meals suggests possible dysphagia, a condition related to swallowing difficulties. Requesting a consultation for dysphagia is essential for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate management. Encouraging the client to perform deep breathing exercises (choice A) may not address the underlying issue of dysphagia. Offering additional clear fluids (choice B) may not be appropriate for someone with swallowing difficulties. Collecting a sputum specimen (choice C) is not the priority in this scenario as the focus should be on identifying and managing the swallowing problem.

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