a 42 year old male client refuses to take propranolol hydrochloride inderal as prescribewhich client statement from the assessment data is likely to e
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HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain their noncompliance with propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is known to cause side effects such as diminished sexual function, which can lead to noncompliance with the medication due to its impact on quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with propranolol hydrochloride. While diarrhea, difficulty falling asleep, and feeling jittery are possible side effects of propranolol, they are not as commonly reported as diminished sexual function. Therefore, choice C is the most likely reason for the client's noncompliance.

2. A client has been coughing for 3 weeks and is beginning to cough up blood. The client has manifestations of which of the following conditions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tuberculosis. Coughing up blood (hemoptysis) is a key symptom of tuberculosis. Tuberculosis is a respiratory infection caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The other options are incorrect because an allergic reaction typically involves symptoms like itching, hives, or swelling, not coughing up blood. Ringworm is a fungal skin infection characterized by a red, circular rash, and systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects joints and skin without causing hemoptysis.

3. A client requires a 24-hour urine collection. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because for a 24-hour urine collection, the first void is discarded, and all subsequent urine should be saved. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements do not contribute to a urine collection. Choice B indicates a single specimen rather than continuous collection over 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as it incorrectly suggests rushing the test by drinking excessively.

4. A client with a terminal illness and approaching death has noisy respirations and is short of breath. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the client's bed is the most appropriate action in this situation. It helps reduce noisy respirations and improves comfort for clients with terminal illnesses by facilitating better air exchange. Administering an opioid medication may not address the immediate issue of noisy respirations and shortness of breath caused by secretions in the airway. Performing oral suctioning without proper assessment and indication can be uncomfortable for the client and may not be necessary. Placing the client in a prone position can further compromise breathing and is not recommended for a client with respiratory distress.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, an elevated serum potassium level (hyperkalemia) is the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias due to its effect on the electrical conduction system of the heart. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent serious complications. While elevated serum creatinine (Choice A) and Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) levels (Choice B) indicate impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses an immediate risk of cardiac complications. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are typically lower in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production, but they do not present an immediate life-threatening risk like hyperkalemia.

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