a 42 year old male client refuses to take propranolol hydrochloride inderal as prescribewhich client statement from the assessment data is likely to e
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain their noncompliance with propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is known to cause side effects such as diminished sexual function, which can lead to noncompliance with the medication due to its impact on quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with propranolol hydrochloride. While diarrhea, difficulty falling asleep, and feeling jittery are possible side effects of propranolol, they are not as commonly reported as diminished sexual function. Therefore, choice C is the most likely reason for the client's noncompliance.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer multiple medications to a client who has an enteral feeding tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering multiple medications to a client with an enteral feeding tube is to flush the tube with 15-30 mL of sterile water before and between medications, and 30-60 mL after the last medication. This helps prevent clogging and ensures each medication is delivered effectively. Choice A is incorrect as medications should not be dissolved in water for administration through an enteral feeding tube. Choice B is incorrect because each medication should be drawn up and administered separately to prevent any potential interactions. Choice C is incorrect as resistance while pushing the plunger may indicate a problem that needs to be addressed before continuing with the administration.

3. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient with a diagnosis of urinary tract infection (UTI). Upon assessment, the nurse finds the patient confused and agitated. How will the nurse interpret these assessment findings?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should interpret confusion and agitation in an older adult patient with a UTI as common manifestations of the infection. In older patients, confusion is a primary symptom of a compromised state due to an acute urinary tract infection or fever. Choice A is incorrect as confusion and agitation are not normal signs of aging. Choice B is incorrect because these symptoms are more likely related to the UTI rather than early signs of dementia. Choice C is incorrect as confusion and agitation in this context are not purely psychological but are likely physiological responses to the UTI.

4. What action should the nurse include in the plan of care for a postoperative client with a history of poor nutritional intake who needs care for wound healing?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To promote wound healing in a postoperative client with poor nutritional intake, the nurse should include a protein intake of 1.5 g/kg of body weight per day in the plan of care. Proteins are essential for tissue repair and wound healing. Increasing carbohydrate intake or administering high-dose vitamin supplements may not directly promote wound healing. Ensuring a daily intake of 1000 calories may not provide adequate nutrients for optimal wound healing.

5. A group member is being taught about expected changes of aging by a nurse. Which statement by the group member shows effective learning?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because as individuals age, there is a normal decline in cardiac efficiency, leading to a slower return to baseline heart rate after exercise. This statement demonstrates an understanding of an expected change related to aging. Choice B is incorrect as vision typically declines with age due to changes in the eye's structure. Choice C is incorrect because aging usually leads to a decrease in skin elasticity. Choice D is incorrect as hearing tends to decline rather than become more acute with age.

Similar Questions

The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?
Which goal is most appropriate for a patient who has had a total hip replacement?
The nurse is preparing to administer a medication through a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action should the LPN/LVN take to ensure proper administration?
The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a peripheral intravenous (IV) line that has infiltrated. What is the most appropriate initial action for the healthcare professional to take?
During the stages of dying, a client reaches the point of acceptance. What response should the LPN/LVN expect the client to exhibit?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses