Nursing Elites

1. Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain their noncompliance with propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)?

• A. I have problems with diarrhea.
• B. I have difficulty falling asleep.
• C. I have diminished sexual function.
• D. I often feel jittery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is known to cause side effects such as diminished sexual function, which can lead to noncompliance with the medication due to its impact on quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with propranolol hydrochloride. While diarrhea, difficulty falling asleep, and feeling jittery are possible side effects of propranolol, they are not as commonly reported as diminished sexual function. Therefore, choice C is the most likely reason for the client's noncompliance.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO. Zaroxolyn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?

• A. 1/2 tablet.
• B. 1 tablet.
• C. 1 1/2 tablets.
• D. 2 tablets.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To administer 7.5 mg of metolazone (Zaroxolyn), the LPN/LVN should plan to give 1 1/2 tablets since each tablet contains 5 mg. Choice A (1/2 tablet) would not provide the full prescribed dose. Choice B (1 tablet) would only deliver 5 mg, which is less than the prescribed dose. Choice D (2 tablets) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in 10 mg instead of the required 7.5 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer 1 1/2 tablets to achieve the prescribed 7.5 mg.

3. A client has extracellular fluid volume deficit. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Postural hypotension
• B. Distended neck veins
• C. Dependent edema
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Postural hypotension is a common sign of extracellular fluid volume deficit due to decreased blood volume, leading to a drop in blood pressure upon standing. Distended neck veins, dependent edema, and bradycardia are not typically associated with extracellular fluid volume deficit. Distended neck veins are more indicative of fluid volume overload, dependent edema is a sign of fluid retention, and bradycardia is not a common finding in extracellular fluid volume deficit.

4. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test. Which site is most appropriate for this injection?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Vastus lateralis muscle
• C. Abdomen
• D. Inner forearm

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The inner forearm is the most appropriate site for administering a tuberculin skin test. This test requires an intradermal injection, which is administered just below the surface of the skin. The inner forearm provides a flat, easily accessible surface for this type of injection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the tuberculin skin test should not be administered into a muscle (deltoid muscle or vastus lateralis muscle) or into the abdomen. The test requires precise placement within the dermal layer of the skin on the inner forearm to accurately assess for a reaction.

5. A client is prescribed a buccal medication. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client understands how to take this medication?

• A. “I will first dissolve the tablet in water.”
• B. “I will insert the tablet between my cheek and teeth.”
• C. “I will place the tablet under my tongue.”
• D. “I will chew the tablet.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct way to take buccal medications is to insert the tablet between the cheek and gums where it will dissolve slowly. Option A is incorrect because buccal medications are not meant to be dissolved in water. Option C is incorrect as sublingual medications are placed under the tongue. Option D is incorrect because chewing a buccal tablet is not the correct administration method.

Similar Questions