HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer metoprolol 200 mg PO daily. The medication available is metoprolol 100 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 1 tablet
- B. 2 tablets
- C. 0.5 tablet
- D. 4 tablets
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To administer 200 mg of metoprolol using 100 mg tablets, the healthcare professional should give 2 tablets. Each tablet contains 100 mg of metoprolol, so 2 tablets will provide the required 200 mg dose. Choice A is incorrect because 1 tablet would only provide 100 mg, which is insufficient. Choice C is incorrect as fractions of tablets are usually not used in practice to ensure accurate dosing. Choice D is incorrect as it would result in an overdose, providing 400 mg instead of the prescribed 200 mg.
2. An older adult client appears agitated when the nurse requests that the client’s dentures be removed prior to surgery and states, “I never go anywhere without my teeth.” Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
- A. You should comply with the request
- B. You seem worried. Are you concerned someone may see you without your teeth?
- C. I will call your family to discuss this
- D. It’s not a big deal; just remove them
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The appropriate nursing response in this situation is to acknowledge and address the client's concerns empathetically. By expressing understanding and asking if the client is worried about being seen without their teeth, the nurse shows empathy and attempts to alleviate the client's anxiety. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's feelings. Choice C is inappropriate as it does not directly address the client's agitation. Choice D is not the best response as it minimizes the client's feelings and does not provide emotional support.
3. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?
- A. INR of 1.5
- B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
- C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
- D. aPTT of 70 seconds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.
4. What finding signifies that children have attained the stage of concrete operations according to Piaget?
- A. Demonstrates exploration of the environment through sight and movement
- B. Thinks in mental images or word pictures
- C. Makes the moral judgment that 'stealing is wrong'
- D. Reasons that homework is time-consuming yet necessary
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Makes the moral judgment that 'stealing is wrong''. This finding signifies the attainment of the concrete operational stage according to Piaget. At this stage, children begin to understand rules and logic, including moral judgments. Choice A is incorrect because it does not specifically relate to concrete operational thinking. Choice B is incorrect as it refers more to the preoperational stage where children engage in symbolic thought. Choice D is also incorrect as it involves practical reasoning, which is not directly related to the concrete operational stage according to Piaget.
5. During the check-up of a 2-month-old infant at a well-baby clinic, the mother expresses concern to the nurse because a flat pink birthmark on the baby's forehead and eyelid has not gone away. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Mongolian spots are a normal finding in dark-skinned infants.
- B. Port wine stains are typically associated with other malformations.
- C. Telangiectatic nevi are normal and will disappear as the baby grows.
- D. The child is too young for surgical removal of these at this time.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Telangiectatic nevi, often referred to as 'stork bites,' are common birthmarks in infants and are considered normal. These birthmarks usually fade and disappear as the child grows older. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Mongolian spots are bluish-gray birthmarks commonly found in darker-skinned infants, port wine stains are vascular birthmarks that typically do not disappear, and surgical removal is not recommended for telangiectatic nevi as they usually resolve on their own.
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