Nursing Elites

1. During an assessment, a client receiving tube feedings via NG tube shows signs of nasal mucosa irritation. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 5.5 mEq/L
• B. Irritation of nasal mucosa
• C. Sodium 144 mEq/L
• D. Loose stools

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritation of nasal mucosa is a crucial finding that the nurse should report to the provider as it suggests potential complications with NG tube placement, such as improper positioning or mucosal damage. High potassium levels (Choice A) can be concerning but are not directly related to NG tube placement issues. Normal sodium levels (Choice C) and loose stools (Choice D) are common occurrences in clients receiving tube feedings and are not typically indicative of immediate complications that require urgent reporting.

2. What intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement for a male client experiencing urinary retention?

• A. Apply a condom catheter.
• B. Apply a skin protectant.
• C. Encourage increased fluid intake.
• D. Assess for bladder distention.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement for a male client experiencing urinary retention is to assess for bladder distention. This assessment is crucial as it helps identify the underlying cause of urinary retention, such as bladder distention or obstruction. By assessing the bladder, the LPN/LVN can determine the appropriate interventions needed, such as catheterization, medication administration, or further evaluation by the healthcare provider. Applying a condom catheter (Choice A) is more suitable for urinary incontinence, not retention. Applying a skin protectant (Choice B) is typically done to prevent skin breakdown in incontinent clients. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice C) may be beneficial for some urinary issues but is not the priority intervention for urinary retention.

3. The patient is reporting an inability to clear nasal passages. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Use gentle suction to prevent tissue damage.
• B. Instruct the patient to blow their nose forcefully to clear the passage.
• C. Place a dry washcloth under the nose to absorb secretions.
• D. Insert a cotton-tipped applicator into the back of the nose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient reports an inability to clear nasal passages, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to use gentle suction to prevent tissue damage. Suctioning helps remove excess mucus or secretions without causing harm to the nasal tissues. Instructing the patient to blow their nose forcefully (Choice B) may exacerbate the issue and cause discomfort or injury. Placing a dry washcloth under the nose (Choice C) is not an effective intervention for clearing nasal passages. Inserting a cotton-tipped applicator into the back of the nose (Choice D) is not recommended as it can be invasive and may cause injury or discomfort to the patient.

4. A client diagnosed with a terminal illness asks the nurse about the nurse’s religious beliefs related to death and dying. An appropriate nursing response is to:

• A. Share personal beliefs
• B. Encourage the client to express their thoughts about death and dying
• C. Redirect the conversation to medical treatment
• D. Inform the client that the nurse’s beliefs are not relevant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to express their own thoughts about death and dying is an appropriate nursing response in this situation. It allows the client to explore and express their feelings, fears, and beliefs, facilitating a therapeutic conversation. Sharing personal beliefs (choice A) may not be appropriate as it could impose the nurse's beliefs on the client and hinder open discussion. Redirecting the conversation to medical treatment (choice C) may avoid addressing the client's emotional and spiritual needs. Informing the client that the nurse’s beliefs are not relevant (choice D) dismisses the client's concerns and does not encourage open communication.

5. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

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