Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO. Zaroxolyn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?

• A. 1/2 tablet.
• B. 1 tablet.
• C. 1 1/2 tablets.
• D. 2 tablets.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To administer 7.5 mg of metolazone (Zaroxolyn), the LPN/LVN should plan to give 1 1/2 tablets since each tablet contains 5 mg. Choice A (1/2 tablet) would not provide the full prescribed dose. Choice B (1 tablet) would only deliver 5 mg, which is less than the prescribed dose. Choice D (2 tablets) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in 10 mg instead of the required 7.5 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer 1 1/2 tablets to achieve the prescribed 7.5 mg.

2. While auscultating a client's abdomen, a nurse hears a blowing sound over the aorta. The nurse should identify this sound as which of the following?

• A. Gallop
• B. Bruit
• C. Thrill
• D. Murmur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bruit. A bruit is a blowing sound indicating turbulent blood flow, often heard over the aorta. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A gallop is a cardiac sound resembling the sound of a galloping horse. A thrill is a vibration felt on palpation, and a murmur is a swooshing or whooshing sound heard during auscultation of the heart or blood vessels. In this scenario, the blowing sound over the aorta specifically indicates a bruit, which signifies turbulent blood flow and should be further assessed by the healthcare provider.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which action should the LPN/LVN take to ensure the client's safety?

• A. Check the client's identification and blood type.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs every hour during the transfusion.
• C. Administer the blood through a peripheral IV line.
• D. Verify the blood product with another nurse before administration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ensure the client's safety during a blood transfusion, it is crucial to verify the blood product with another nurse before administration. This step helps confirm the correct blood type and prevents transfusion reactions. While checking the client's identification and blood type (Choice A) is important, the ultimate responsibility lies with confirming the blood product before administration. Monitoring vital signs (Choice B) is necessary during a transfusion but does not directly address verifying the blood product. Administering blood through a peripheral IV line (Choice C) is a common practice but does not specifically ensure that the correct blood product is being administered, which is essential for the client's safety.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus and a new prescription for insulin is being discharged. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to complete first?

• A. Provide the client with printed information on insulin self-administration.
• B. Obtain printed information on insulin self-administration.
• C. Make a copy of the medication reconciliation form for the client.
• D. Determine whether the client can afford the insulin administration supplies.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining printed information on insulin self-administration should be the nurse's first priority. This action ensures that the client has the necessary knowledge to safely self-administer insulin at home. Providing the client with printed information (Choice A) is essential to empower the client with the required knowledge before considering additional resources. Making a copy of the medication reconciliation form for the client (Choice C) is important for documentation purposes but not as urgent as ensuring the client's understanding of insulin administration. Determining the client's ability to afford insulin administration supplies (Choice D) is crucial but should follow after ensuring the client is equipped with the necessary information for safe self-administration.

5. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?

• A. Atelectasis
• B. Renal calculi
• C. Pressure ulcers
• D. Joint contractures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.

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