Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic renal failure selects scrambled eggs for breakfast. What action should the LPN/LVN take?

• A. Commend the client for selecting a high biological value protein.
• B. Remind the client that protein in the diet should be avoided.
• C. Suggest that the client also select orange juice to promote absorption.
• D. Encourage the client to attend classes on dietary management of chronic renal failure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to commend the client for selecting a high biological value protein, as scrambled eggs provide a good protein source for clients with chronic renal failure. Protein is essential for maintaining muscle mass and overall health in these clients. Reminding the client to avoid protein is incorrect as it may lead to protein-energy malnutrition, which is a common concern in chronic renal failure. Suggesting orange juice for absorption is not relevant to the situation, as protein absorption is not a primary concern in this context. Encouraging the client to attend classes on dietary management of chronic renal failure is important for overall education but is not the immediate action needed in response to the client's breakfast choice.

2. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
• B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
• C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
• D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should see the client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. New onset of dyspnea, especially after surgery, can indicate a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis. It is essential to assess this client promptly to rule out potentially life-threatening conditions. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important issues but do not indicate the urgency and potential severity of a post-operative complication like pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis.

3. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is receiving metformin (Glucophage). Which laboratory test should the LPN/LVN monitor while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Liver function tests
• C. Serum electrolytes
• D. Renal function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver function tests. While a client is taking metformin, monitoring liver function tests is crucial to assess for potential hepatic side effects. Metformin is primarily eliminated by the liver, and monitoring liver function tests helps in early detection of any liver-related complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A complete blood count (CBC) is not specifically required for monitoring metformin therapy. Serum electrolytes are not directly impacted by metformin, making it less relevant for monitoring this medication. Renal function tests are important for some other diabetes medications, but in the case of metformin, liver function tests take precedence due to its hepatic metabolism.

4. When planning home care for a 72-year-old client with osteomyelitis requiring a 6-week course of intravenous antibiotics, what is the most important action by the nurse?

• A. Investigating the client's insurance coverage for home IV antibiotic therapy
• B. Determining if there are adequate hand washing facilities in the home
• C. Assessing the client's ability to participate in self-care and/or the reliability of a caregiver
• D. Selecting the appropriate venous access device

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client's ability to participate in self-care or evaluating the reliability of a caregiver is crucial in ensuring adherence to the treatment plan. This action helps determine if the client can manage the intravenous antibiotics at home independently or if assistance is needed. Investigating insurance coverage, ensuring hand washing facilities, and selecting the venous access device are important aspects of care but assessing the client's ability for self-care and caregiver reliability takes precedence to promote treatment success and safety.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client. Which site is most appropriate for the healthcare professional to use?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Ventrogluteal site
• C. Dorsogluteal site
• D. Rectus femoris site

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the most appropriate site for administering an intramuscular injection to an adult client. This site is preferred due to its large muscle mass and distance from major nerves and blood vessels, reducing the risk of injury or complications. The deltoid muscle, while commonly used for vaccinations, may not be suitable for certain medications due to its smaller muscle mass. The dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended due to the proximity of the sciatic nerve, which can lead to complications. The rectus femoris site is not commonly used for intramuscular injections in clinical practice.

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