Nursing Elites

1. A community health nurse is preparing a campaign about seasonal influenza. Which of the following plans should the nurse include as a secondary prevention?

• A. Screening groups of older adults in nursing care facilities for early influenza manifestations
• B. Promoting hand hygiene to prevent the spread of influenza
• C. Administering influenza vaccinations
• D. Educating about the importance of healthy lifestyle choices to prevent influenza

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary prevention aims to detect and address health issues early. Screening older adults in nursing care facilities for early influenza manifestations is an example of secondary prevention by identifying cases at an early stage. Choice B, promoting hand hygiene, is a form of primary prevention that aims to prevent the occurrence of influenza. Choice C, administering influenza vaccinations, is a form of primary prevention as well, focusing on preventing the disease before it occurs. Choice D, educating about healthy lifestyle choices, is more related to health promotion and primary prevention rather than secondary prevention.

2. A nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse providing care for a client who reports pain. The nurse checked the client’s MAR and noted the last dose of pain medication was administered 6 hours ago. The prescription specifies administration every 4 hours PRN for pain. The nurse administered the medication and followed up with the client 40 minutes later, who reported improvement. What did the newly licensed nurse overlook in the nursing process?

• A. Assessment
• B. Planning
• C. Intervention
• D. Evaluation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Assessment.' In the nursing process, assessment is the first step, crucial before any intervention. Assessment involves gathering data about the client's condition to establish a baseline for evaluating responses to interventions. In this scenario, the newly licensed nurse missed assessing the client's pain intensity, location, quality, and other relevant factors before administering the pain medication. While the follow-up evaluation with the client is commendable, it cannot replace the initial assessment. Planning involves setting goals and outcomes, intervention is the action taken to achieve these goals, and evaluation assesses the client's response to the intervention.

3. The nurse is planning a meal plan that would provide the most iron for a child with anemia. Which dinner menu would be best?

• A. Fish sticks, french fries, banana, cookies, milk
• B. Ground beef patty, lima beans, wheat roll, raisins, milk
• C. Chicken nuggets, macaroni, peas, cantaloupe, milk
• D. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich, apple slices, milk

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ground beef, lima beans, and raisins are rich sources of iron, making this meal plan the most suitable for a child with anemia. Ground beef is a high-iron meat, while lima beans and raisins are also excellent sources of iron. Fish sticks, french fries, banana, and cookies in option A lack sufficient iron content compared to the options in B. Chicken nuggets, macaroni, and peas in option C are not as iron-rich as the ground beef, lima beans, and raisins in option B. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich with apple slices in option D also fall short in providing enough iron when compared to the iron-rich components of option B.

4. A nurse has an order to remove sutures from a client. After retrieving the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Clean sutures along the incision site.
• B. Grasp the knot of the sutures with forceps.
• C. Cut the sutures close to the skin on one side.
• D. Pull out the sutures with forceps in one piece.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next after preparing the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves is to clean sutures along the incision site. This step is crucial in preventing infection, which is the greatest risk to the client during suture removal. Cleaning the site helps minimize the risk of introducing microorganisms into the incision, reducing the chances of infection. Grasping at the knot of the sutures with forceps (Choice B) is incorrect as it does not address the need to clean the incision. Cutting the sutures close to the skin on one side (Choice C) or pulling out the sutures with forceps in one piece (Choice D) without proper cleaning can increase the risk of infection and should not be the next step in the process of suture removal.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
• B. Irregular heart rhythm
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. It can indicate a worsening of the condition, pulmonary edema, or the development of a complication such as heart failure. A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress in this context. An irregular heart rhythm is expected in atrial fibrillation and may not necessarily be a new or concerning finding. Fatigue is a common symptom in atrial fibrillation but is not as acutely concerning as shortness of breath, which may indicate compromised oxygenation and circulation.

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