HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. A community health nurse is preparing a campaign about seasonal influenza. Which of the following plans should the nurse include as a secondary prevention?
- A. Screening groups of older adults in nursing care facilities for early influenza manifestations
- B. Promoting hand hygiene to prevent the spread of influenza
- C. Administering influenza vaccinations
- D. Educating about the importance of healthy lifestyle choices to prevent influenza
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary prevention aims to detect and address health issues early. Screening older adults in nursing care facilities for early influenza manifestations is an example of secondary prevention by identifying cases at an early stage. Choice B, promoting hand hygiene, is a form of primary prevention that aims to prevent the occurrence of influenza. Choice C, administering influenza vaccinations, is a form of primary prevention as well, focusing on preventing the disease before it occurs. Choice D, educating about healthy lifestyle choices, is more related to health promotion and primary prevention rather than secondary prevention.
2. After completing an assessment and determining that a client has a problem, what should the LPN/LVN do next?
- A. Determine the etiology of the problem.
- B. Prioritize nursing care interventions.
- C. Plan appropriate interventions.
- D. Collaborate with the client to set goals.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After identifying a problem in a client, the next step for the LPN/LVN is to determine the etiology or cause of the problem. Understanding the root cause of the issue is essential as it guides the development of appropriate interventions. Option B, prioritizing nursing care interventions, is premature without knowing the cause of the problem. Option C, planning appropriate interventions, also relies on knowing the etiology first to ensure the interventions directly address the underlying issue. Collaborating with the client to set goals, as mentioned in option D, is important but typically comes after understanding the cause of the problem to ensure the goals are relevant and effective.
3. A client is scheduled for an appendectomy and has given informed consent. Which statement by the client should the nurse address first preoperatively?
- A. “I am afraid to walk if it hurts too much.”
- B. “I don’t understand why I need this surgery.”
- C. “I don’t want my family helping me after the surgery.”
- D. “I am afraid the scar will make me look disfigured.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should address the client's lack of understanding regarding the need for surgery first. Ensuring that the client comprehends the rationale for the procedure is essential for informed consent. Choices A, C, and D, while important, do not directly impact the client's understanding of the necessity of the surgery and can be addressed after clarifying the reason for the procedure.
4. A healthcare professional is planning to collect a liquid stool specimen from a client for ova and parasites. Inaccurate test results may result if the healthcare professional:
- A. Refrigerates the collected specimen
- B. Collects the specimen in a sterile container
- C. Delays the collection of the specimen
- D. Uses a non-contaminated collection container
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Refrigeration can kill the ova and parasites present in the stool specimen, leading to inaccurate test results. Storing the specimen in a cold environment can disrupt the integrity of the parasites and ova, affecting the accuracy of the test. Collecting the specimen in a sterile container (Choice B) is the correct procedure to prevent external contamination. Delaying the collection of the specimen (Choice C) may affect the freshness of the sample but does not directly impact the test results. Using a non-contaminated collection container (Choice D) is essential to maintain the sample's integrity but does not relate to the risk of killing ova and parasites through refrigeration.
5. A 3-year-old child diagnosed with celiac disease attends a daycare center. Which of the following would be an appropriate snack?
- A. Cheese crackers
- B. Peanut butter sandwich
- C. Potato chips
- D. Vanilla cookies
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is potato chips. As a child with celiac disease needs to avoid gluten, potato chips are a suitable snack choice as they are typically gluten-free. Cheese crackers (Choice A) and vanilla cookies (Choice D) contain gluten, which should be avoided by individuals with celiac disease. While peanut butter sandwiches (Choice B) could be gluten-free depending on the bread used, it is not the best choice as cross-contamination is a concern in shared environments like daycare centers.
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