HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. A community health nurse is preparing a campaign about seasonal influenza. Which of the following plans should the nurse include as a secondary prevention?
- A. Screening groups of older adults in nursing care facilities for early influenza manifestations
- B. Promoting hand hygiene to prevent the spread of influenza
- C. Administering influenza vaccinations
- D. Educating about the importance of healthy lifestyle choices to prevent influenza
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary prevention aims to detect and address health issues early. Screening older adults in nursing care facilities for early influenza manifestations is an example of secondary prevention by identifying cases at an early stage. Choice B, promoting hand hygiene, is a form of primary prevention that aims to prevent the occurrence of influenza. Choice C, administering influenza vaccinations, is a form of primary prevention as well, focusing on preventing the disease before it occurs. Choice D, educating about healthy lifestyle choices, is more related to health promotion and primary prevention rather than secondary prevention.
2. While a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours.
- B. Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours.
- C. Weigh the client daily.
- D. Change the TPN bag every 24 hours.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action is to change the TPN bag every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection. Changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours (Choice B) may increase the risk of contamination. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours (Choice A) is important but not specific to TPN administration. Weighing the client daily (Choice C) is essential for monitoring fluid status but is not directly related to TPN administration.
3. A healthcare professional is planning to document care provided for a client. Which of the following abbreviations should the professional use?
- A. PC for after meals
- B. QD for every day
- C. BID for twice a day
- D. PRN for as needed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: PC for after meals. PC stands for 'post cibum,' which is the appropriate abbreviation for 'after meals' in medical documentation. Choices B, QD, and C, BID, represent 'every day' and 'twice a day,' respectively, which are not specific to meal times. Choice D, PRN, signifies 'as needed,' which is also not related to meal timings. Therefore, for documenting care provided after meals, the most suitable abbreviation is PC.
4. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
- B. Complete a functional assessment of the client's self-care abilities
- C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
- D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The first action the nurse should implement is to determine the size and depth of the skin breakdown over the sacral area. This initial assessment will provide crucial information on the extent of the damage and guide appropriate care interventions. Option A is not the priority in this scenario as the immediate concern is addressing the existing skin breakdown. Option B, completing a functional assessment, is important but should come after addressing the acute issue of skin breakdown. Option C, applying a barrier ointment, may be beneficial later but does not address the primary need of assessing the extent of the current skin damage.
5. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease who is ambulatory but requires total assistance with activities of daily living (ADLs). The nurse notices that the patient is edentulous. Which area should the nurse assess?
- A. Assess oral cavity.
- B. Assess room for drafts.
- C. Assess ankles for edema.
- D. Assess for reduced sensations.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the oral cavity. 'Edentulous' means without teeth, so the nurse should assess the oral cavity for any issues related to oral health, dentures, or potential complications. This assessment is crucial to prevent oral health problems and ensure proper care for the patient. Assessing the room for drafts (choice B) is unrelated to the patient's edentulous status and does not address the immediate care needs. Assessing ankles for edema (choice C) is important for circulatory assessment but not directly related to the patient being edentulous. Assessing for reduced sensations (choice D) would be more relevant for neurological or sensory concerns, which are not specifically associated with being edentulous.
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