Nursing Elites

1. A client is reporting pain to a nurse. When documenting the quality of the client's pain on an initial pain assessment, the nurse should record which of the following client statements?

• A. "I'm having mild pain."
• B. "The pain is like a dull ache in my stomach."
• C. "I notice that the pain gets worse after I eat."
• D. "The pain makes me feel nauseous."

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When documenting the quality of pain, it is essential to record the client's description of how the pain feels in their own words. Choice A simply states the intensity of pain but does not describe its quality. Choices C and D provide information related to aggravating factors and associated symptoms, respectively, but they do not describe the quality of pain. Therefore, choice B, which describes the pain as a dull ache in the stomach, is the most appropriate statement to document for assessing the quality of the client's pain.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing for change of shift. Which document or tool should the healthcare professional use to communicate?

• A. SBAR
• B. SOAP
• C. DAR
• D. PIE

Correct answer: A

Rationale: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured method for communicating critical information during shift changes or handoffs. It helps to ensure important details about a patient's condition and care are effectively communicated. Choice B, SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan), is a note-taking format used in healthcare to document patient encounters, but it is not specifically designed for shift handoffs. Choice C, DAR (Data, Action, Response), and choice D, PIE (Problem, Intervention, Evaluation), are not commonly used communication tools during shift changes in healthcare settings. Therefore, the correct choice is SBAR for effective communication during shift handoffs.

3. The client is receiving continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which finding indicates that the bladder irrigation is effective?

• A. The client reports minimal pain and discomfort.
• B. The urine appears clear and free of clots.
• C. The client has no signs of infection.
• D. The client is able to void independently.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of clear urine free of clots is an indicator that the bladder irrigation is effective. This finding suggests that the irrigation is preventing clot formation and ensuring proper drainage, which is crucial after a TURP procedure. The client reporting minimal pain and discomfort (choice A) may be a positive sign but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of the bladder irrigation. The absence of infection signs (choice C) is important but not specific to evaluating the bladder irrigation. The client being able to void independently (choice D) is a good sign overall but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of the bladder irrigation.

4. What action should be taken to maintain the patency of a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)?

• A. Flush the catheter with heparin solution daily.
• B. Change the dressing at the insertion site daily.
• C. Use sterile technique when changing the dressing.
• D. Keep the insertion site dry at all times.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to use sterile technique when changing the dressing. This practice is essential for preventing infections that can compromise the patency of the PICC line. While flushing the catheter with heparin solution helps prevent clot formation, it does not directly maintain patency. Changing the dressing daily is important for hygiene but does not have a direct impact on catheter patency. Keeping the insertion site dry is crucial to prevent infections but does not specifically address patency maintenance.

5. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

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