Nursing Elites

1. A client is reporting pain to a nurse. When documenting the quality of the client's pain on an initial pain assessment, the nurse should record which of the following client statements?

• A. "I'm having mild pain."
• B. "The pain is like a dull ache in my stomach."
• C. "I notice that the pain gets worse after I eat."
• D. "The pain makes me feel nauseous."

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When documenting the quality of pain, it is essential to record the client's description of how the pain feels in their own words. Choice A simply states the intensity of pain but does not describe its quality. Choices C and D provide information related to aggravating factors and associated symptoms, respectively, but they do not describe the quality of pain. Therefore, choice B, which describes the pain as a dull ache in the stomach, is the most appropriate statement to document for assessing the quality of the client's pain.

2. The healthcare provider is reviewing the signed operative consent with a client who is admitted for the removal of a lipoma on the left leg. The client states that the permit should include...

• A. Notify the surgeon of the client’s concern
• B. Have the client sign a new surgical permit
• C. Add the client’s concern to the permit
• D. Inform the surgeon about the client’s concern

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best course of action is to inform the surgeon about the client's concern. This action ensures that the surgeon is aware of the client's specific request or concern related to the procedure. By directly involving the surgeon, the client's preferences or needs can be addressed effectively, potentially avoiding any misunderstanding or dissatisfaction. Choice A has been corrected to 'Notify the surgeon of the client’s concern' as the operating room staff may not have the authority to make changes to the permit. Having the client sign a new surgical permit (Choice B) may not be necessary if the concern can be addressed by informing the surgeon, making Choice B less efficient. Adding the client’s concern to the permit (Choice C) without consulting the surgeon may not align with the standard procedure and could lead to confusion or legal issues if the surgeon is not aware of the client’s specific requests.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative following a cholecystectomy. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Absent bowel sounds
• B. Pain level of 8/10
• C. Temperature of 100.4°F
• D. Saturated abdominal dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention, such as ensuring hemostasis and preventing further complications. Absent bowel sounds are common in the immediate post-operative period and may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. A pain level of 8/10 can be managed with appropriate pain medication and is not typically considered an immediate priority unless other indications suggest complications. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may not be a cause for immediate concern unless it is associated with other signs of infection or distress that would warrant urgent attention.

4. A patient has scaling of the scalp. Which term will the nurse use to report this finding to the oncoming staff?

• A. Dandruff
• B. Alopecia
• C. Pediculosis
• D. Xerostomia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct term the nurse will use to report scaling of the scalp is 'Dandruff.' Dandruff is characterized by scaling of the scalp that is often accompanied by itching. Choice B, 'Alopecia,' refers to hair loss, not scaling. Choice C, 'Pediculosis,' is the infestation of lice, not scaling. Choice D, 'Xerostomia,' pertains to dry mouth, which is unrelated to the described symptom of scaling of the scalp.

5. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

• A. 16
• B. 12
• C. 6
• D. 14

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

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