HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. A client is admitted to the emergency room following an acute asthma attack. Which of the following assessments would be expected by the nurse?
- A. Diffuse expiratory wheezing
- B. Loose, productive cough
- C. No relief from inhaler
- D. Fever and chills
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During an acute asthma attack, one of the expected assessments by the nurse would be diffuse expiratory wheezing. This occurs due to narrowed airways and increased airflow velocity. Choice B, a loose productive cough, is not typically associated with an asthma attack. Choice C, no relief from inhaler, may indicate ineffective treatment but is not a direct assessment finding related to the physical examination. Choice D, fever and chills, are not typical symptoms of an asthma attack and would not be expected findings during the initial assessment of an acute asthma attack.
2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?
- A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
- C. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
- D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.
3. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?
- A. 16
- B. 12
- C. 6
- D. 14
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.
4. A client is experiencing dehydration, and the nurse is planning care. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?
- A. Administer antihypertensives as prescribed.
- B. Check the client’s weight daily.
- C. Notify the provider if the urine output is less than 30 mL/hr.
- D. Encourage the client to ambulate independently four times a day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Checking the client's weight daily is essential for monitoring fluid status in dehydration. Administering antihypertensives, notifying the provider of insufficient urine output, and encouraging ambulation are not primary interventions for managing dehydration. Administering antihypertensives may affect blood pressure, but it is not a direct intervention for dehydration. Notifying the provider of a urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates oliguria, which is a sign of reduced kidney function rather than dehydration. Encouraging ambulation is a general nursing intervention and does not directly address the fluid imbalance associated with dehydration.
5. During assessment, what is a nurse monitoring when assessing body alignment?
- A. The relationship of one body part to another in different positions
- B. The coordination between musculoskeletal and nervous systems
- C. The force opposing movement direction
- D. The ability to move freely
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a nurse assesses body alignment, they are observing the relationship of one body part to another in various positions. This involves evaluating the positioning of joints, tendons, ligaments, and muscles while a person is standing, sitting, or lying down. Choice B is incorrect because it refers more to the coordination between the musculoskeletal and nervous systems, which is not specifically related to body alignment assessment. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the force opposing movement rather than body alignment. Choice D is incorrect as it defines the ability to move freely, which is not directly related to monitoring body alignment.
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