Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client’s heart sounds, the nurse hears a scratching sound during both systole and diastole. These sounds become more distinct when the nurse has the client sit up and lean forward. The nurse should document the presence of a:

• A. Pericardial friction rub
• B. Heart murmur
• C. S3 heart sound
• D. S4 heart sound

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A pericardial friction rub is characterized by a scratching sound that occurs during both systole and diastole. It becomes more distinct when the client is sitting up and leaning forward. This indicates an inflammation of the pericardial sac rubbing against the layers of the heart. Heart murmurs (choice B) are abnormal heart sounds caused by turbulent blood flow, not by friction like in a pericardial rub. S3 and S4 heart sounds (choices C and D) are additional heart sounds related to abnormal ventricular filling, not to pericardial friction rubs.

2. A nurse in a provider's office is obtaining the health and medication history of a client who has a respiratory infection. The client tells the nurse that she is not aware of any allergies, but that she did develop a rash the last time she was taking an antibiotic. Which of the following information should the nurse give to the client?

• A. We need to document the exact medication you were taking because you might be allergic to it.
• B. You should take a different type of antibiotic this time.
• C. A rash is a common reaction and is not usually concerning.
• D. You can take the same antibiotic again if needed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should advise the client to document the exact medication taken to identify potential allergies and prevent adverse reactions. This is important as the client developed a rash previously while taking an antibiotic, indicating a possible allergic reaction. Choice B is not appropriate as switching antibiotics without proper evaluation can be risky. Choice C is incorrect as rashes should not be dismissed without further investigation, especially in the context of taking medication. Choice D is also not recommended as re-taking the same antibiotic without clarifying the allergic reaction can lead to a potentially severe outcome.

3. When evaluating a client's plan of care, the LPN determines that a desired outcome was not achieved. Which action will the LPN implement first?

• A. Establish a new nursing diagnosis.
• B. Note which actions were not implemented.
• C. Add additional nursing orders to the plan.
• D. Collaborate with the healthcare provider to make changes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the LPN to take when a desired outcome is not achieved is to note which actions were not implemented. This step helps in identifying gaps in the plan of care and reasons for not achieving the desired outcome. Establishing a new nursing diagnosis (Choice A) is not the initial step when evaluating the plan of care. Adding additional nursing orders (Choice C) may not address the root cause of the unachieved outcome. Collaborating with the healthcare provider (Choice D) should come after identifying the gaps in the plan and reasons for the outcome not being met.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a history of congestive heart failure. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Shortness of breath on exertion
• B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in a week
• C. Orthopnea
• D. Crackles in the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crackles in the lungs are concerning because they indicate pulmonary congestion, a serious complication of congestive heart failure. The presence of crackles suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, requiring immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress and worsening heart failure. While shortness of breath on exertion, weight gain, and orthopnea are common signs and symptoms of heart failure, crackles specifically point to acute pulmonary edema or worsening congestion, making them the most concerning finding in this scenario.

5. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
• B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
• C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
• D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the client who has new onset dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. This sudden dyspnea could indicate a serious complication like a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with a low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important concerns but are not as immediately life-threatening as potential pulmonary embolism indicated by sudden dyspnea postoperatively.

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