HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. A 2-year-old child is brought to the health care provider's office with a chief complaint of mild diarrhea for 2 days. Nutritional counseling by the nurse should include which statement?
- A. Place the child on clear liquids and gelatin for 24 hours
- B. Continue with the regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids
- C. Give bananas, apples, rice, and toast as tolerated
- D. Place NPO for 24 hours, then rehydrate with milk and water
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In managing mild diarrhea in a 2-year-old child, it is important to maintain their regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids. Choice A of placing the child on clear liquids and gelatin for 24 hours may not provide adequate nutrition and can lead to further electrolyte imbalances. Choice C of giving bananas, apples, rice, and toast as tolerated is a part of the BRAT diet, which is not recommended as the primary approach anymore due to its limited nutritional value. Choice D of placing the child NPO for 24 hours and then rehydrating with milk and water is not appropriate as it can worsen dehydration and delay recovery. Therefore, the best option is to continue the child's regular diet while incorporating oral rehydration fluids to prevent dehydration and maintain nutritional status.
2. During the physical assessment of a client, which technique should a nurse use when performing a Romberg's test?
- A. Touch the client's face with a cotton ball
- B. Apply a vibrating tuning fork to the client's forehead
- C. Have the client stand with arms at her sides and feet together
- D. Perform direct percussion over the area of the kidneys
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During a Romberg's test, the nurse assesses the client's balance. Having the client stand with arms at her sides and feet together is the correct technique. This position helps the nurse observe for swaying or loss of balance, indicating alterations in balance. Choices A and B are incorrect as they are not part of Romberg's test and do not assess balance. Choice D is also incorrect as direct percussion over the kidneys is not associated with a Romberg's test.
3. Which of the following findings contraindicate the use of haloperidol (Haldol) and warrant withholding the dose?
- A. Drowsiness, lethargy, and inactivity
- B. Dry mouth, nasal congestion, and blurred vision
- C. Rash, blood dyscrasias, severe depression
- D. Hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rash, blood dyscrasias, and severe depression are serious side effects of haloperidol that necessitate withholding the dose and prompt further evaluation. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction, blood dyscrasias are serious blood disorders that can be life-threatening, and severe depression may worsen with haloperidol use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because drowsiness, lethargy, inactivity, dry mouth, nasal congestion, blurred vision, hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema are common side effects of haloperidol that may not necessarily contraindicate its use but should be monitored and managed appropriately.
4. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
- B. Complete a functional assessment of the client's self-care abilities
- C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
- D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The first action the nurse should implement is to determine the size and depth of the skin breakdown over the sacral area. This initial assessment will provide crucial information on the extent of the damage and guide appropriate care interventions. Option A is not the priority in this scenario as the immediate concern is addressing the existing skin breakdown. Option B, completing a functional assessment, is important but should come after addressing the acute issue of skin breakdown. Option C, applying a barrier ointment, may be beneficial later but does not address the primary need of assessing the extent of the current skin damage.
5. While instructing a male client's wife in the performance of passive range-of-motion exercises to his contracted shoulder, the nurse observes that she is holding his arm above and below the elbow. What nursing action should the LPN/LVN implement?
- A. Acknowledge that she is supporting the arm correctly.
- B. Encourage her to keep the joint covered to maintain warmth.
- C. Reinforce the need to grip directly under the joint for better support.
- D. Instruct her to grip directly over the joint for better motion.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Acknowledging that the client's wife is supporting the arm correctly is the appropriate nursing action in this scenario. By doing so, the nurse reinforces correct technique and promotes confidence. Choice B is incorrect as the issue is not about maintaining warmth. Choice C is incorrect as gripping directly under the joint is not necessary in this case. Choice D is incorrect as instructing to grip directly over the joint may not provide the best support for passive range-of-motion exercises.
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