Nursing Elites

1. Prior to a client being transported for a chest x-ray, what should a healthcare professional do first?

• A. Identify the client using two identifiers
• B. Confirm the client's fasting status
• C. Check the client's allergies to contrast media
• D. Explain the procedure to the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Identifying the client using two identifiers is the crucial first step to ensure correct patient identification before any procedure. This process helps prevent errors and ensures that the right procedure is performed on the right patient. Confirming the client's identity is the top priority before addressing other aspects such as fasting status, allergies, or explaining the procedure. While confirming fasting status and checking for allergies are important, they are secondary to confirming the client's identity. Explaining the procedure to the client is also essential but should occur after ensuring proper identification.

2. A nurse manager is developing strategies to care for the increasing number of clients who have obesity. Which of the following actions should the nurse include as a primary health care strategy?

• A. Collaborating with providers to perform obesity screenings during routine office visits.
• B. Ensuring the availability of specialized beds in rehabilitation centers for clients who have obesity.
• C. Providing specialized intraoperative training in surgical treatments for obesity.
• D. Educating acute care nurses about postoperative complications related to obesity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Collaborating with providers to perform obesity screenings during routine office visits. This is a primary health care strategy as it focuses on prevention and early detection, which are key components of managing obesity. Screening during routine visits allows for timely identification of obesity and related health risks, enabling early intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not align with primary health care strategies for obesity. Ensuring availability of specialized beds, providing intraoperative training, and educating about postoperative complications are more focused on secondary and tertiary levels of care, rather than primary prevention and early detection.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide (Lasix) 15 mg IV stat. On hand is Lasix 20 mg/2 ml. How many milliliters should the LPN/LVN administer?

• A. 1 ml.
• B. 1.5 ml.
• C. 1.75 ml.
• D. 2 ml.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dose of 15 mg, the LPN/LVN should administer 1.5 ml of Lasix (20 mg/2 ml). This calculation ensures precise dosing. Choice A (1 ml) is too low and would provide only 10 mg, while choice C (1.75 ml) and choice D (2 ml) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in potential adverse effects. It is important for the LPN/LVN to administer the exact prescribed dose to ensure therapeutic efficacy and avoid unnecessary complications.

4. A patient uses an in-the-canal hearing aid. Which assessment is a priority?

• A. Eyeglass usage
• B. Cerumen buildup
• C. Type of physical exercise
• D. Excessive moisture problems

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient uses an in-the-canal hearing aid, cerumen buildup is a critical issue that needs to be regularly assessed. Cerumen can easily block the sound passage and affect the functionality of the hearing aid. Assessing and managing cerumen buildup is a priority to ensure the proper functioning of the hearing aid. Eyeglass usage, type of physical exercise, and excessive moisture problems are not directly related to the specific issue of cerumen buildup in in-the-canal hearing aids, making them lower priority assessments in this context.

5. A client with a prescription for a clear liquid diet is receiving teaching about food choices from a nurse. Which of the following selections by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Gelatin
• B. Whole milk
• C. Cream soups
• D. Orange juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gelatin. Gelatin is suitable for a clear liquid diet because it is transparent and free of solid particles. Clear liquid diets are designed to be easily digested and leave minimal residue in the gastrointestinal tract. Choices B, C, and D are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet. Whole milk, cream soups, and orange juice contain solid particles or pulp, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Whole milk and cream soups are not clear liquids as they contain milk solids and vegetable particles respectively. Orange juice contains pulp, which is not part of a clear liquid diet. It is important for clients to follow dietary restrictions to achieve the intended therapeutic outcomes.

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