Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total knee replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 88/min
• B. Serous drainage on the dressing
• C. Temperature 37.3°C (99.1°F)
• D. Calf pain on dorsiflexion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Calf pain on dorsiflexion following knee surgery may indicate a complication such as deep vein thrombosis, which is a serious condition requiring medical attention. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal range for a client post knee surgery and do not typically indicate immediate complications that require urgent reporting.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.
• B. Verify the client's blood type and Rh factor.
• C. Administer the blood over 8 hours.
• D. Use a 22-gauge needle for venous access.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type and Rh factor. This action is crucial to ensure that the correct blood is administered, matching the client's blood type and Rh factor, which helps prevent transfusion reactions. Priming the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice A) is not directly related to ensuring the correct blood product is administered. Administering the blood over 8 hours (Choice C) is not the standard practice for packed RBCs, which are usually given over a shorter period. Using a 22-gauge needle for venous access (Choice D) is not specific to the preparation for administering packed RBCs.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?

• A. Hyperlipidemia.
• B. COPD.
• C. Seizure disorder.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.

4. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Measure the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours
• B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours
• C. Weigh the client weekly
• D. Administer the TPN through a peripheral IV line

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is to change the TPN tubing every 24 hours. This practice helps reduce the risk of infection in clients receiving parenteral nutrition. Measuring the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours is important for clients on insulin therapy or with diabetes, but it is not directly related to TPN administration. Weighing the client weekly is essential for monitoring fluid status and nutritional progress, but it is not specific to TPN care. Administering TPN through a peripheral IV line is incorrect because TPN solutions are hypertonic and can cause phlebitis or thrombosis if administered through a peripheral line; a central venous access is typically used for TPN administration.

5. What is the best intervention for a patient presenting with respiratory distress?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Administer bronchodilators
• C. Reposition the patient
• D. Provide humidified air

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most critical intervention for a patient in respiratory distress as it helps improve oxygenation levels. Oxygen therapy aims to increase oxygen saturation in the blood, providing relief and support during episodes of respiratory distress. Administering bronchodilators may be beneficial in some cases, but oxygen therapy takes precedence in addressing the underlying issue of inadequate oxygenation. Repositioning the patient may help optimize ventilation but does not directly address the primary need for increased oxygen. Providing humidified air can offer comfort but does not address the urgent need for improved oxygen levels in a patient experiencing respiratory distress.

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