a nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia which of the following client statements indicates an u
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ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because swelling in the hands is a potential sign of worsening preeclampsia, and the client should report this to their provider. Choice A is incorrect since aspirin is not recommended in preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect as calcium intake is not directly related to preventing seizures in preeclampsia. Choice D is incorrect because protein restriction is not the standard management for preventing further kidney damage in preeclampsia.

2. A client is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse expect to be ordered to monitor the effect of warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). When a client is on warfarin therapy, the INR is monitored regularly to assess the anticoagulant effects of the medication. A therapeutic INR range for most indications is between 2.0 to 3.0. Choices A, C, and D are not typically used to monitor the effect of warfarin. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood, PT measures the clotting time of plasma, and PTT evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has just received an opioid medication. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client receives an opioid medication, the nurse should first monitor for respiratory depression as it is a life-threatening adverse effect associated with opioids. This can lead to inadequate ventilation and hypoxia, requiring immediate intervention. Constipation, drowsiness, and orthostatic hypotension are also common side effects of opioids but are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is common in patients receiving diuretics?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Diuretics, such as furosemide, commonly cause potassium loss in patients, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) involves low sodium levels and can occur in conditions like syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) but is not directly caused by diuretics. Hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is an excess of magnesium, usually not a common electrolyte imbalance induced by diuretics.

5. A client has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking digoxin is to notify their provider if they experience visual disturbances. Visual disturbances can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, and prompt notification to the healthcare provider is essential for timely intervention. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Choice C is incorrect because antacids can interfere with the absorption of digoxin. Choice D is incorrect because a heart rate less than 60/min is not a sole reason to avoid taking digoxin; rather, it is important to monitor the heart rate and consult with the healthcare provider if there are concerns.

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