a nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia which of the following client statements indicates an u
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ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because swelling in the hands is a potential sign of worsening preeclampsia, and the client should report this to their provider. Choice A is incorrect since aspirin is not recommended in preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect as calcium intake is not directly related to preventing seizures in preeclampsia. Choice D is incorrect because protein restriction is not the standard management for preventing further kidney damage in preeclampsia.

2. What is the best position for a patient with respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best position for a patient with respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position, where the patient's feet are higher than the head, is contraindicated in respiratory distress as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The prone position, lying face down, may be beneficial in certain cases like acute respiratory distress syndrome but is not generally recommended for all patients in respiratory distress. The supine position, lying flat on the back, can worsen respiratory distress by causing the tongue to fall back and obstruct the airway.

3. A client in active labor is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a baseline FHR of 170/min indicates fetal tachycardia, which needs further evaluation. Choice A about contractions lasting 80 seconds is within the normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are generally considered benign and do not require immediate reporting. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), falls within normal limits for a laboring client and does not warrant immediate reporting.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings indicates a need to revise the client's plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated random serum glucose levels of 190 mg/dL indicate hyperglycemia and poor blood sugar control, requiring a revised plan of care. HbA1c levels above 7% also indicate long-term poor control of blood sugar. Serum sodium of 144 mEq/L and creatinine of 1.2 mg/dL are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate a need for a plan of care revision.

5. Which lab value is critical to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy. INR measures the blood's ability to clot and is used to ensure that patients are within the therapeutic range for warfarin therapy. This is important to prevent both clotting disorders and bleeding complications. Monitoring potassium levels (choice B) is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Platelet count (choice C) and sodium levels (choice D) are important parameters but are not as critical to monitor specifically for patients on warfarin therapy.

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