a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to eval
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so serum potassium should be monitored to evaluate its effectiveness. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia as a side effect. Serum sodium, serum calcium, and serum glucose levels are not directly affected by spironolactone and would not provide an accurate assessment of the medication's effectiveness.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin glargine to a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when administering insulin glargine is to give it at the same time each day. This consistent timing helps maintain stable blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because insulin glargine should not be administered via IV push. Choice B is incorrect as rotating injection sites is typically done for short-acting insulins to prevent lipodystrophy, not for insulin glargine. Choice C is incorrect as insulin glargine should not be mixed with other insulins before administration.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL is higher than expected and should be reported to prevent hyperglycemia complications. High blood glucose levels can lead to hyperglycemia, causing various issues such as increased risk of infection and delayed wound healing. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client receiving continuous enteral feedings and do not require immediate reporting.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer packed RBCs is to check the client's identification using two identifiers. This step is crucial to ensure that the right blood is given to the right client, preventing any transfusion errors. Priming the IV tubing with dextrose 5% in water and administering the blood through a 22-gauge catheter are important steps but should come after confirming the client's identity. Ensuring the client's consent is on file is also important but is not the immediate priority when preparing to administer packed RBCs.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common manifestation of acute pain caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity. This response is the body's way of trying to regulate body temperature during the stress response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension (Choice A) and tachycardia (not bradycardia as in Choice B) are more likely responses to acute pain due to sympathetic nervous system activation. Piloerection (Choice D), also known as goosebumps, is not a typical manifestation of acute pain.

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