a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to eval
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so serum potassium should be monitored to evaluate its effectiveness. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia as a side effect. Serum sodium, serum calcium, and serum glucose levels are not directly affected by spironolactone and would not provide an accurate assessment of the medication's effectiveness.

2. Which of the following is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion in the body, causing hypokalemia. This is a significant concern as low potassium levels can result in cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is unlikely to occur as a result of furosemide use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not typically linked to furosemide use.

3. A client with asthma is being taught how to use a peak flow meter by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client should exhale quickly and forcefully into the peak flow meter after taking a deep breath to measure peak expiratory flow. Choice A is incorrect as blowing as hard as possible may not provide an accurate reading. Choice C is incorrect because inhaling deeply before blowing can affect the results. Choice D is incorrect as holding the breath before exhaling is not part of using a peak flow meter.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Teach the client pursed-lip breathing technique. Pursed-lip breathing helps clients with COPD improve oxygenation and reduce shortness of breath. Choice A is incorrect because deep breathing and coughing are not recommended every 4 hours for clients with COPD. Choice B is incorrect because a diet high in carbohydrates and low in protein is not specifically indicated for COPD. Choice D is incorrect because fluid restriction is not a standard intervention for COPD unless the client has comorbid conditions that necessitate it.

5. What is the most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia is to monitor lung sounds. Lung sounds provide crucial information about the severity of pneumonia, such as crackles or decreased air entry. This assessment helps in evaluating the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation. While checking oxygen saturation is important, monitoring lung sounds gives more direct information about the lung involvement in pneumonia. Assessing for cough and fever are also relevant but do not provide as direct and critical information as monitoring lung sounds in the context of suspected pneumonia.

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