Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to your upper arm.
• B. You should remove the patch before showering.
• C. Rotate the patch site each time you apply it.
• D. Apply the patch to your lower abdomen.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to rotate the patch site each time they apply it. This practice helps prevent skin irritation and ensures the effectiveness of nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Applying the patch to the same site each time can lead to skin irritation and decreased patch efficacy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because applying the patch to the upper arm, removing it before showering, and placing it on the lower abdomen do not promote proper rotation of patch sites, which is essential for optimal outcomes.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. History of hypertension
• B. History of polycystic ovary syndrome
• C. History of asthma
• D. History of kidney disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, history of kidney disease. Metformin should be used with caution in clients with kidney disease due to the risk of lactic acidosis, a serious complication. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for assessing the appropriateness of continuing metformin therapy. Choices A, B, and C do not contraindicate the use of metformin, so they are not the priority for reporting.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has osteoarthritis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Administer opioids routinely for chronic pain.
• B. Instruct the client to avoid weight-bearing exercises.
• C. Apply heat to affected joints to reduce stiffness.
• D. Avoid physical activity to prevent joint damage.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with osteoarthritis is to apply heat to affected joints to reduce stiffness. Heat application helps improve circulation, relax muscles, and reduce discomfort in joints affected by osteoarthritis. Administering opioids routinely (Choice A) is not the first-line treatment for osteoarthritis and carries risks of dependency and side effects. Instructing the client to avoid weight-bearing exercises (Choice B) may lead to muscle weakness and reduced joint flexibility. Avoiding physical activity altogether (Choice D) can lead to further joint stiffness and compromised overall health.

4. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who reports cocaine use 1hr ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Memory loss
• C. Slurred speech
• D. Elevated temperature

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated temperature. Cocaine is a stimulant drug that can lead to an increase in body temperature. Hypotension (choice A) is less likely as cocaine tends to increase blood pressure. Memory loss (choice B) and slurred speech (choice C) are not typically immediate effects of recent cocaine use.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Peripheral edema.
• B. Cough with frothy sputum.
• C. Jugular vein distention.
• D. Dependent edema.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Jugular vein distention. In left-sided heart failure, the left ventricle fails to efficiently pump blood to the body, causing increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation. This increased pressure can lead to symptoms like jugular vein distention, as blood backs up in the pulmonary circulation and causes congestion. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: Peripheral edema is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure, cough with frothy sputum is a sign of pulmonary edema which can occur in left-sided heart failure but is not as specific as jugular vein distention, and dependent edema is also more indicative of right-sided heart failure due to fluid retention and increased venous pressure in the systemic circulation.

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