Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving TPN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?

• A. Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours.
• B. Monitor the client's blood glucose every 4 hours.
• C. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
• D. Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.' When caring for a client receiving TPN, it is crucial to maintain aseptic technique to prevent infections. Changing the central line dressing with sterile technique helps reduce the risk of introducing pathogens into the client's system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours, monitoring blood glucose, and monitoring urine output are important aspects of care but are not directly related to preventing infection in clients receiving TPN.

2. How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?

• A. Monitor INR levels
• B. Monitor hemoglobin levels
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.

3. A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to increase dietary fiber.
• B. Maintain the client on a low-residue diet.
• C. Provide the client with frequent high-calorie snacks.
• D. Encourage the client to eat a high-fiber diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease, the nurse should maintain the client on a low-residue diet. This diet helps to minimize bowel irritation by reducing the volume and frequency of stools. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Encouraging the client to increase dietary fiber (Choice A) and eat a high-fiber diet (Choice D) can worsen symptoms and aggravate bowel inflammation in Crohn's disease. Providing the client with frequent high-calorie snacks (Choice C) may not be appropriate during an exacerbation since high-fat foods can be harder to digest and may exacerbate symptoms.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values indicates the TPN is effective?

• A. Albumin 3.5 g/dL
• B. Hemoglobin 8 g/dL
• C. WBC count 15,000/mm3
• D. Blood glucose 110 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL indicates that the TPN is effective in maintaining normal glucose levels. Hemoglobin level (choice B) is related to anemia and not directly indicative of TPN effectiveness. Albumin level (choice A) is a marker of nutritional status over a longer term and may not reflect immediate TPN effectiveness. White blood cell count (choice C) is related to infection or inflammation and is not a direct indicator of TPN effectiveness.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure of 98/58 mm Hg
• B. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
• C. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.

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