Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving TPN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?

• A. Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours.
• B. Monitor the client's blood glucose every 4 hours.
• C. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
• D. Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.' When caring for a client receiving TPN, it is crucial to maintain aseptic technique to prevent infections. Changing the central line dressing with sterile technique helps reduce the risk of introducing pathogens into the client's system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours, monitoring blood glucose, and monitoring urine output are important aspects of care but are not directly related to preventing infection in clients receiving TPN.

2. A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
• C. Blood glucose 90 mg/dL
• D. Urine ketones present

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urine ketones present. The presence of urine ketones indicates dehydration and inadequate glucose control in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not directly correlate with the condition of hyperemesis gravidarum. Therefore, they are not the priority values to report in this scenario.

3. A client with schizophrenia starting therapy with clozapine is being discharged. Which symptom should the client report to the provider as the highest priority?

• A. Constipation
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Fever
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. When a client is taking clozapine, fever can indicate serious conditions such as infection or severe reactions, which need immediate medical attention. Constipation (choice A), blurred vision (choice B), and dry mouth (choice D) are common side effects of clozapine but are not as urgent as fever. Constipation can be managed with dietary changes or medications, blurred vision can improve over time, and dry mouth can be relieved with frequent sips of water.

4. A client with iron-deficiency anemia is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Oatmeal
• B. Red meat
• C. Bananas
• D. Whole grains

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Red meat. Red meat is a good dietary source of heme iron, which is easily absorbed by the body and beneficial for individuals with iron-deficiency anemia. Oatmeal, bananas, and whole grains are not as rich in iron compared to red meat and may not provide sufficient amounts to help manage iron-deficiency anemia effectively.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take this medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Take this medication with a full glass of water.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients taking clopidogrel should take the medication with a full glass of water to prevent gastrointestinal irritation. Choice A is incorrect because there is no specific recommendation to avoid foods high in potassium with clopidogrel. Choice B is unrelated to the medication's administration. Choice D is a duplication of choice C, providing no additional information.

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