a nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate turp which of the following findings sho
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The presence of small blood clots in the urine is an expected finding after a TURP due to the surgical manipulation of the prostate bed and the bladder. However, larger clots can indicate excessive bleeding and should be reported promptly. Urine output of 30 mL/hr is within the expected range for post-TURP clients, indicating adequate kidney perfusion. Pink-tinged urine is also normal after a TURP due to minor bleeding from the surgical site. A blood pressure of 114/78 mm Hg is within normal limits and does not require immediate reporting.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to monitor for black, tarry stools while taking clopidogrel. This is important because it helps detect gastrointestinal bleeding, a potential side effect of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid foods high in fat while taking clopidogrel. Choice C is incorrect as grapefruit juice interaction is not a concern with clopidogrel. Choice D is incorrect as clopidogrel can be taken with or without food.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral nutrition through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to flush the tube with 30 mL of sterile water before each feeding. This helps maintain tube patency and prevents clogs. Choice B is incorrect because enteral feedings should be administered using a gravity drip method or a pump, not through a large-bore syringe. Choice C is incorrect because the head of the bed should be elevated to at least 30 degrees to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D is incorrect because the feeding bag should be replaced every 24 hours to prevent bacterial contamination.

4. What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Supine position (lying flat on the back) may worsen breathing difficulties by reducing lung capacity. The Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is not recommended for patients with shortness of breath as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The Prone position (lying face down) is also not suitable for patients experiencing shortness of breath as it may further restrict breathing.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Urinary retention is an adverse effect of morphine, as it can lead to the relaxation of the detrusor muscle and sphincter constriction in the bladder. Diaphoresis, hypotension, and tachycardia are common side effects of morphine due to its vasodilatory effects and impact on the autonomic nervous system. Diaphoresis is excessive sweating, which can be a normal response to pain or fever. Hypotension and tachycardia can occur due to morphine's vasodilatory effects and its impact on the cardiovascular system. Therefore, the presence of urinary retention would indicate the need for further assessment and intervention.

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